Step 1: Open your power points to Chapter 8, slide 9-14, fig. 8.3.
Review Figure 8.3 on fluid balance
Step 1: Pull out your food journal
Using your own diet analysis, set up a dietary consultation as if you were with a client. The client may be fictional or yourself
Some things to include:
Your food recommendations paper should be a minimum of 2-3 pages in length, APA formatted, properly cited reference page, 12 point font.
Step 2: Create a Food Journal Portfolio
Include in this order:
All components to your portfolio must be presented in essay style APA format, include properly cited reference page, title page, and 12 point font.
sterlingmano (Not rated)5.0 (10)ChatFNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz
Report Issue
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 5
Question
Question 1
Which nodes are also called Virchow nodes?
a. Internal mammary
b. Anterior axillary
c. Deep cervical
d. Supraclavicular
Question 2
To palpate the inguinal nodes, you should have the patient:
a. bend over a table and cough
b. lie supine, with the knees slightly flexed
c. lie supine, with the legs extended
d. stand with the back extended
Question 3
Which risk factor is least likely to result in someone contracting HIV infection?
a. Prostitution
b. Hemophilia
c. Intravenous drug use
d. Working with AIDS patients
Question 4
Which of the following organs does not have lymphatic vessels?
a. Brain
b. Kidneys
c. Liver
d. Lungs
Question 5
Which disorder is characterized by a single node that is chronically enlarged and nontender in a patient with no other symptoms?
a. Retropharyngeal abscess
b. Streptococcal pharyngitis
c. Mononucleosis
d. Toxoplasmosis
Question 6
Transillumination is performed during an examination of the lymphatic system to:
a. detect lymphatic pulsation
b. distinguish nodes from cysts
c. evaluate nodal contours
d. observe erythematous lesions
Question 7
Serum sickness is usually characterized first by the appearance of:
a. diffuse lymph node enlargement
b. joint pain
c. urticaria
d. fever
Question 8
The most important clue to the diagnosis of immunodeficiency disease in a child is:
a. family history
b. illness in siblings
c. previous hospitalizations
d. serious recurring infections
Question 9
Which of the following conditions will stimulate lymph node enlargement? (Select all that apply.)
a. Graves diseaseb
b. Lymphangiomac
c. Esophageal refluxd
d. Parotid swelling
Question 10
The nurse tells her patient with lymphadenopathy not to rub the swollen lymph node because this would result in:
a. spreading the infection
b. enlarging the node
c. slowing the lymphatic drainage
d. making the node more fibrotic
Question 11
The harder and more discrete a node, the more likely that there is a(n):
a. innocent cause
b. infection
c. malignancy
d. metabolic disease
Question 12
Tender nodes associated with cat scratch disease are usually found in which area?
a. Epitrochlear area
b. Popliteal area
c. Axilla
d. Inguinal area
Question 13
To find the infection site associated with acute lymphangitis, the examiner should look ________ to the inflammation.
a. proximal
b. distal
c. contralateral
d. anterior
Question 14
Which landmark is the dividing line between the anterior and posterior cervical triangles?
a. Clavicle
b. Cervical spine
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Sternum
Question 15
Which disorder is a dysfunction of cell-mediated immunity?
a. Acute idiopathic polyneuritis
b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
c. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) mononucleosis
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Question 16
When examining lymph nodes near a joint in the arm or leg, which of the following maneuvers is likely to facilitate the examination?
a. Extension of the extremity
b. Circumduction of the extremity
c. Flexion of the extremity
d. Rotation of the extremity
Question 17
The most common causes of acute suppurative lymphadenitis are:
a. HIV and herpes zoster
b. Haemophilus influenzae and adenovirus
c. herpes simplex types 1 and 2
d. streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms
Question 18
What is the most frequent cause of edema of the lower extremities?
a. Deficiency of vitamins and minerals
b. Excessive walking or running
c. Prolonged sitting or standing
d. Use of table salt
Question 19
Which of the following findings indicates that the examiner is assessing a blood vessel rather than a lymph node?
a. A bruit
b. Inflammation
c. Tenderness
d. Redness
Question 20
Which nodes are most often associated with inflammation?
a. Shotty
b. Movable
c. Fixed
d. Tender
Question 21
Which bronchial structure(s) is(are) most susceptible to aspiration of foreign bodies?
a. Left mainstem bronchus
b. Terminal bronchioles
c. Right mainstem bronchus
d. Respiratory bronchioles
Question 22
While auscultating the lung fields, you note that the patient’s voice sound is intensified, the voice has a nasal quality, and e’s sound like a’s. This describes:
a. resonance
b. bronchophony
c. pectoriloquy
d. egophony
Question 23
You are documenting a rash between the eighth and ninth ribs on the lateral border.This intercostal space will be documented in terms of the:
a. rib immediately above it
b. rib immediately below it
c. number of centimeters it is positioned below the clavicle
d. number of inches it is positioned below the clavicle
Question 24
Which chest structure contains all the thoracic viscera except the lungs?
a. Manubrium
b. Mediastinum
c. Sternum
d. Xiphoid
Question 25
Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:
a. percussing all lung fields
b. auscultating the lung bases
c. determining tactile fremitus
d.estimating diaphragmatic excursion
Question 26
When the umbilical cord is cut:
a. blood flows through the infants lungs more vigorously.
b. lungs fill with air
c. closure of the foramen ovale occurs
d. closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs
Question 27
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of atelectasis?
a. Diminished chest wall movement
b. Tachypnea
c. Bradypnea
d. Trachea deviated ipsilaterally
Question 28
Which type of apnea requires immediate action?
a. Primary apnea
b. Secondary apnea
c. Sleep apnea
d. Periodic apnea of the newborn
Question 29
To distinguish between a respiratory friction rub and cardiac friction rub, ask the patient to:
a. hold the breath
b. lean forward
c. say “99” while you palpate the anterior chest
d. identify the location of the pain
Question 30
When auscultating the apex of the lung, you should listen at a point:
a. even with the second rib
b. 4 cm above the first rib
c. higher on the right side
d. on the convex diaphragm surface
Question 31
Your trauma patient has no auscultated breath sounds in the right lung field. You can hear adequate sounds on the left side. A likely cause of this abnormality could be that the patient:
a. has a closed head injury
b. has fluid in the pleural space
c. is moaning and in severe pain
d. is receiving high-flow oxygen
Question 32
Which condition requires immediate emergency intervention?
a. Patient with pleuritic pain without dyspnea
b. Patient with fever and a productive cough
c. Patient with tachypnea but no chest retractions
d. Patient with absent breath sounds and dull percussion tones
Question 33
Which site of chest wall retractions indicates a more severe obstruction in the asthmatic patient?
a. Lower chest
b. Along the anterior axillary line
c. Above the clavicles
d. At the nipple line
Question 34
With consolidation in the lung tissue, the breath sounds are louder and easier to hear, whereas healthy lung tissue produces softer sounds. This is because:
a. consolidation echoes in the chest
b. consolidation is a poor conductor of sound
c. air-filled lung sounds are from smaller spaces
d. air-filled lung tissue is an insulator of sound
Question 35
Which term would you use to document a respiratory rate more than 20 breaths/min in an adult?
a. Dyspnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Platypnea
d. Tachypnea
Question 36
Which finding suggests a minor structural variation?
a. Barrel chest
b. Clubbed fingers
c. Pectus carinatum
d. Chest wall retractions
Question 37
Which symptom is the most significant indicator of asthma and should be identified in the health history?
a. Wheezing
b. Paroxysmal dyspnea
c. Coexistent skin conditions
d. Chest pain
Question 38
To distinguish crackles from rhonchi, you should auscultate the lungs:
a. before and after the patient coughs
b. first at the lung base and then at the apex
c. with the patient inhaling and then exhaling
d. with the patient recumbent and then sitting
Question 39
Which of the following is an expected finding in newborns?
a. Mottling of the thorax
b. Sternal retractions
c. Cough
d. Sneezing
Question 40
You would expect to document the presence of a pleural friction rub for a patient being treated for:
a. pneumonia
b. atelectasis
c. pleurisy
d. emphysema
Already graded A+
Purchase the answer to view it
FNUPhysicalAssessmentinHealthCareQuiz5.docxTry it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $20Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz 5
Question
Question 1
Which nodes are also called Virchow nodes?
a. Internal mammary
b. Anterior axillary
c. Deep cervical
d. …
Question
Question 1
Which nodes are also called Virchow nodes?
a. Internal mammary
b. Anterior axillary
c. Deep cervical
d. Supraclavicular
Question 2
To palpate the …
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
Follow the instructions provided in “Critique of Research Studies Instructions.”
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Please use APA format, 3 references, I have added the items needed to complete this, the instructions for critique of research studies and also the Topis 3 essay needed for this paper
Critique of Research Studies Instructions
Directions:
Complete a critique of the quantitative and qualitative articles that were submitted in Topic 3.
This assignment will be completed in three parts. Refer to the information below as a guide to the information that should be included in each part.
Follow the guidelines for the quantitative and qualitative article critiques in Box 5.2: Guide to an Overall Critique of a Quantitative Research Report, and Box 5.3: Guide to an Overall Critique of a Qualitative Research Report, in Chapter 5 of the Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice textbook.
1. Utilize a central heading to indicate that what follows is the critique of the articles.
2. The side headings of the critique for each article should follow the headings in Box 5.2 and Box 5.3 in Chapter 5 of the Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice textbook.
3. Note that within these basic guidelines, there are additional references to Detailed Critiquing Guidelines found in additional boxes in other chapters of the Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice textbook focused on the various elements of a research study report. Use these to expand the research study and to learn specific terminology appropriate to the critique of research.
When turning in the final submission, please put the elements in the following order: Quantitative Article Critique, Qualitative Article Critique, References (which should include the two articles, the text, and any other additional sources).
Critique of Research Studies – Part 1: Due Topic 4
For Part 1 of the critique, focus only on the following segments for each article:
Quantitative
Qualitative
· Title
· Title
· Abstract
· Abstract
· Introduction
· Introduction
o Statement of the problem
o Statement of the problem
o Hypotheses or research questions
o Research questions
o Literature review
o Literature review
o Conceptual/Theoretical framework
o Conceptual underpinnings
Research Paper
Diane Boll
Grand Canyon University: NUR 504
10-11-2017
Qualitative Research
In most of the cases people who tend to receive home care end up being given referrals to hospitals. This aspect tends to be expensive and also increases the predisposing factors of that particular illness. In this particular case, the research was basically about the in-situ care for people suffering from pneumonia infections.
The participants involved in this case were mainly family members from the local community who were picked at random. This research involved 14 interview questions which were conducted. In this research person suffering from pneumonia and their family members were given an invitation for a clinical study. The members chosen for this particular activity were those who had a recent case of pneumonia and also those who were deemed to remember the care provided during that particular period of illness. From the research, it was found that most of the participants preferred that pneumonia is treated specifically in the nursing homes. The main reason for this particular response was nursing homes provide the patients with better care and also offer great attention to the clients. The concerns of the participants were mainly on the issue of them being hospitalized. The participants argued that the doctors should always make a premediated judgment on whether to hospitalize them or not. Additionally, the family members of the patients also wanted to be involved during the making of that particular decision. From the findings of this particular research, it was clear that family members should be involved in the decision-making process and also more efforts should be put in order to improve the quality of healthcare services offered at nursing homes (Soo, Mark, & Lynne, 2006).
Quantitative Study on Condom-Use Behaviors
The main aim of this particular research was to come up with a pilot test that would be used to assess the culture of condom use of male individuals aged between eighteen to twenty-four years. In this particular research, the individuals involved in this particular case were between the ages of 18 to 24 years old. Additionally, these participants were required to have accessed healthcare in one of the four healthcare centers in South Chicago. This research also required that the participants be individuals prone to HIV/AIDS and also to have engaged in unprotected sex with multiple partners for the previous three to six months.
The participants selected for this particular research were obtained at random from different points of this particular region. To attract the participants, the mobile vehicle used played hip hop music which is common amongst the people of this particular age bracket. Willing participants were then checked for their eligibility to participate in this particular research. If one was found eligible, he was then requested to verify and agree to the consent forms. After undertaking the research each participant was given a parting shot of $15 for completion of the survey, in addition to this, the participants were also offered $10 for transport expenses. Lastly, the participants were given three condom varieties to choose from for their own use.
From this particular research, it was concluded that African Americans of this particular age bracket were at higher chances of contracting HIV/AIDs or other sexually transmitted diseases. Additionally, it was also concluded that most of these individuals also involved themselves in substance and alcohol abuse (Stephen, Sherry, Jeffrey et al2007).
References
Stephen K, Sherry N, Jeffrey A et al(2007) A Quantitative Study on the Condom-Use Behaviors of Eighteen- to Twenty-Four-Year-Old Urban African American Males retrieved from https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1950730/ on 28th Sep 2017
Soo C, Mark L. & Lynne L., (2006) Pneumonia care and the nursing home: a qualitative descriptive study of resident and family member perspectives retrieved from https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1379645/ on 28th Sep 2017
Patten, M. L., & Newhart, M. (2017). Understanding research methods: An overview of the essentials. Taylor & Francis.
sterlingmano (Not rated)5.0 (10)ChatFNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz
Report Issue
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?
a. Macular degeneration
b. Papilledema
c. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
d. Cupping of the optic disc
Question 2
Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?
a. Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.
b. Instill half the usual dosage.
c. Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.
d. Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation
Question 3
When there is an imbalance found with the corneal light test, you should then perform the ___________ test.
a. confrontation
b. accommodation
c. cover–uncover
d. visual acuity
Question 4
White specks scattered in a linear pattern around the entire circumference of the iris are called:
a. drusen bodies.
b. cotton wool spots.
c. rust spots.
d. Brushfield spots.
Question 5
Which of the following may be suggestive of Down syndrome?
a. Drusen bodies
b. Papilledema
c. Narrow palpebral fissures
d. Prominent epicanthal folds
Question 6
You are attempting to examine the eyes of a newborn. To facilitate eye opening, you would first:
a. dim the room lights.
b. elicit pain.
c. place him in the supine position.
d. shine the penlight in his or her eyes.
Question 7
When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by:
a. brisk blinking.
b. copious tearing.
c. pupil dilation.
d. reflex smiling.
Question 8
Xanthelasma may suggest that the patient has an abnormality of:
a. lipid metabolism.
b. cognitive function.
c. renal metabolism.
d. bone marrow function.
Question 9
You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose.You are assessing for:
a. confrontation reaction.
b. accommodation.
c. pupillary light reflex.
d. nystagmus.
Question 10
Which of the following findings, when seen in the infant, is ominous?
a. Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
b. Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
c. Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
d. White pupils on photographs
Question 11
When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
Ans: 1
Question 12
Which risk factor is associated with the highest rate of oral cancers?
a. Women
b. Being younger than 55 years
c. excessive caffeine use
d. Fanconi anemia
Question 13
You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child’s appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of:
a. acute otitis media.
b. otitis externa.
c. serous otitis media.
d. middle ear effusion.
Question 14
Which of the following signs and symptoms occur with a sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
a. Air conduction shorter than bone conduction
b. Lateralization to the affected ear
c. Loss of high-frequency sounds
d. Speaks more loudly
e. Disorder of the inner ear
f. Air conduction longer than bone conduction
Question 15
Which variation may be an expected finding in the ear examination of a newborn?
a. Diffuse light reflex
b. Purulent material in the ear canal
c. Redness and swelling of the mastoid process
d. Small perforations of the tympanic membrane
Question 16
White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:
a. Fordyce spots.
b. aphthous ulcers.
c. Stensen ducts.
d. leukoedema.
Question 17
You are performing Weber and Rinne hearing tests. For the Weber test, the sound lateralized to the unaffected ear; for the Rinne test, air conduction–to–bone conduction ratio is less than 2:1. You interpret these findings as suggestive of:
a. a defect in the inner ear.
b. a defect in the middle ear.
c. otitis externa.
d. impacted cerumen.
Question 18
You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?
a. 7
b. 12
c. 20
d. 40
e. 65
Question 19
Which abnormality is common during pregnancy?
a. Eruption of additional molars
b. Hypertrophy of the gums
c. Otitis externa
d. Otitis media
Question 20
You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to:
a. remove all cerumen from the canal.
b. make sure the speculum is sealed form outside air.
c. squeeze the bulb with more force.
d. insert the speculum to depth of 2 cm.
Question 21
Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?
a. Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.
b. A bruit is auscultated.
c. Inspection reveals a goiter.
d. The gland is tender on palpation
Question 22
Which type of headache usually occurs at night, is precipitated by alcohol consumption, and occurs more often in men than in women?
a. Classic migraine
b. Temporal arteritis
c. Cluster
d. Hypertensive
Question 23
Which of the following is true regarding caput succedaneum?
a. It is a subperiosteal collection of blood.
b. It is firm and its edges are well defined.
c. It develops several days after delivery.
d. It is seen over the presenting part of thehead
Question 24
You are palpating a patient’s thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left.These data would indicate:
a. a congenital anomaly.
b. a normal thyroid gland.
c. a multinodular goiter.
d. thyroiditis.
Question 25
Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
a. Corneal clouding
b. Eye slanting
c. Mild ptosis
d. Symmetric, bulging fontanels
Question 26
Which of the following is a chronic autoimmune disorder?
a. tenosynovitis
b. fibromyalgia
c. rhabdomyolysis
d. myasthenia gravis
Question 27
Which cranial nerves innervate the face?
a. II and V
b. III and VI
c. V and VII
d. VIII and IX
Question 28
You are examining Ms. L, age 78 years. You find a sunken appearance of her eyes, cheeks, and temporal areas. Her skin is dry, and her nose appears sharp. This description of Ms. L’s facies is associated with:
a. cutis laxa syndrome.
b. Hurler syndrome.
c. old age.
d. terminal illness.
Question 29
Which of the following is true regarding a cephalohematoma?
a. It is bound by suture lines.
b. The affected part feels soft.
c. It is obvious at birth.
d. The margins are poorly defined
Question 30
Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?
a. Flexed away from the side being examined
b. Flexed directly forward
c. Flexed toward the side being examined
d. Hyperextended directly backward
Already graded A+
Purchase the answer to view it
FNUPhysicalAssessmentinHealthCareQuiz4.docxTry it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $20Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?
a. Macular degeneration
b. …
FNU Physical Assessment in Health Care Quiz
Question 1
Which of the following is a relatively benign condition that may occur during pregnancy or labor?
a. Macular degeneration
b. …
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
Choose one legislator on the state or federal level who is also a nurse, and discuss the importance of their role as advocate for improving health care delivery. What specific bill(s) have they sponsored or supported that has/have influenced health care?
REMEBER I LIVE IN FLORIDA, if you find any from here it is PERFECT
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) was passed into legislation in March of 2010. Identify the impact of this legislation on your nursing practice by choosing two key nursing provisions outlined in the topic material “Nursing and Health Reform.” Discuss how these two provisions have impacted, or will impact, your current practice of nursing.
The case scenario provided will be used to answer the discussion questions that follow.
Case Scenario
Mr. C., a 32-year-old single man, is seeking information at the outpatient center regarding possible bariatric surgery for his obesity. He reports that he has always been heavy, even as a small child, but he has gained about 100 pounds in the last 2–3 years. Previous medical evaluations have not indicated any metabolic diseases, but he says he has sleep apnea and high blood pressure, which he tries to control with sodium restriction. He current works at a catalog telephone center.
Objective Data
Critical Thinking Questions
What health risks associated with obesity does Mr. C. have? Is bariatric surgery an appropriate intervention? Why or why not?
Mr. C. has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the following medications have been ordered:
The patient reports eating meals at 7 a.m., noon, and 6 p.m., and a bedtime snack at 10 p.m. Plan an administration schedule that will be most therapeutic and acceptable to the patient.
In a short essay (500-750 words), answer the Question at the end of Case Study 1. Cite references to support your positions.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Case Study 1
Ms. A. is an apparently healthy 26-year-old white woman. Since the beginning of the current golf season, Ms. A has noted increased shortness of breath and low levels of energy and enthusiasm. These symptoms seem worse during her menses. Today, while playing in a golf tournament at a high, mountainous course, she became light-headed and was taken by her golfing partner to the emergency clinic. The attending physician’s notes indicated a temperature of 98 degrees F, an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate, and low blood pressure. Ms. A states, “Menorrhagia and dysmenorrheal have been a problem for 10-12 years, and I take 1,000 mg of aspirin every 3 to 4 hours for 6 days during menstruation.” During the summer months, while playing golf, she also takes aspirin to avoid “stiffness in my joints.”
Laboratory values are as follows:
Hemoglobin = 8 g/dl
Hematocrit = 32%
Erythrocyte count = 3.1 x 10/mm
RBC smear showed microcytic and hypochromic cells
Reticulocyte count = 1.5%
Other laboratory values were within normal limits.
Question
Considering the circumstances and the preliminary workup, what type of anemia does Ms. A most likely have? In an essay of 500-750 words, explain your answer and include rationale.
RUBRIC:
Accurate identification of anemia classification and rationale.
Identification of anemia classification and rationale is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of deeper insight and/or reflection.
Explanation of patient diagnosis with rationale from case findings. Outside sources and/or medical and nursing references used to support conclusions.
Explanation of patient diagnosis uses outside sources and/or medical and nursing references to support conclusions and is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of deeper insight and/or reflection.
Thesis Development and Purpose:
Thesis and/or main claim are comprehensive; contained within the thesis is the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.
Paragraph Development and Transitions
There is a sophisticated construction of paragraphs and transitions. Ideas progress and relate to each other. Paragraph and transition construction guide the reader. Paragraph structure is seamless.
Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)
Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.
Paper Format(1- inch margins;12-point-font;double-spaced;Times New Roman, Arial, or Courier)
All format elements are correct.
Research Citations(In-text citations for paraphrasing and direct quotes, and reference page listing and formatting, as appropriate to assignment)
In-text citations and a reference page are complete. The documentation of cited sources is free of error.
In a short essay (500-750 words), answer the Question at the end of Case Study 2. Cite references to support your positions.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. This means the similarity (less than 20 %).
Case Study 2
Mr. P is a 76-year-old male with cardiomyopathy and congestive heart failure who has been hospitalized frequently to treat CHF symptoms. He has difficulty maintaining diet restrictions and managing his polypharmacy. He has 4+ pitting edema, moist crackles throughout lung fields, and labored breathing. He has no family other than his wife, who verbalizes sadness over his declining health and over her inability to get out of the house. She is overwhelmed with the stack of medical bills, as Mr. P always took care of the financial issues. Mr. P is despondent and asks why God has not taken him.
Question
Considering Mr. P’s condition and circumstance, write an essay of 500-750 words that includes the following:
· Describe your approach to care.
· Recommend a treatment plan.
· Describe a method for providing both the patient and family with education and explain your rationale.
· Provide a teaching plan (avoid using terminology that the patient and family may not understand).
RUBRIC:
Describe your approach to care
Description of your approach to care is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of deeper insight and/or reflection.
Recommend a treatment plan
Recommendation of a treatment plan is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of insight and/or reflection.
Describe a method for providing both the patient and family with education and your rationale.
Description of a method for providing both the patient and family with education is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of deeper insight and/or reflection.
Provide a teaching plan, using words the patient and family will understand
A teaching plan is offered in detail, while demonstrating evidence of deeper insight and/or reflection.
Thesis Development and Purpose
Thesis and/or main claim are comprehensive; contained within the thesis is the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.
Paragraph Development and Transitions
There is a sophisticated construction of paragraphs and transitions. Ideas progress and relate to each other. Paragraph and transition construction guide the reader. Paragraph structure is seamless.
Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use)
Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English
Paper Format (1- inch margins; 12-point-font; double-spaced; Times New Roman, Arial, or Courier)
All format elements are correct
Research Citations (In-text citations for paraphrasing and direct quotes, and reference page listing and formatting, as appropriate to assignment)
In-text citations and a reference page are complete. The documentation of cited sources is free of error.
Hi there! Click one of our representatives below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.