1 A Flat Turbine Agitator With A Disk Having Six Blades Is Installed In A Tank The T 2811351

1. .A flat turbine agitator with a disk having six blades is installed in a tank. The tank diameter is1.83 m, the turbine diameter is 0.61 m, Dt = H, and the width W is 0.122 m. The tank contains four baffles, each having a width of J = 0.15 m. The turbine is operated at 90 rpm and the liquid in the tank has a viscosity of 10 cps and a density of 929 kg/m3. It is desired to design a small pilot plant unit with a vessel volume of 2 L so that the effects of various process variables on the system can be studied in the laboratory. The rates of mass transfer appear to be important in this system, so the scale down should be on this basis. Design the new system specifying sizes, rpm and power.
2.An ideal gas flows isetropically through a converging-diverging nozzle. At a section in the converging portion of the nozzle, A1= 0.1 m2, p1= 600 kPa (abs), T1= 20 ? C, and Ma1 = 0.6. For section (2) in the diverging part of the nozzle, determine A2, p2 and T2 if Ma2 = 3 and the gas is air.
3.Air is injected into a 50 m long horizontal pipeline (of 42 mm diameter) carrying a clay slurry of density 1452 kg/m 3. The rheological behaviour of the slurry follows the power-law model, with m = 5.55 Pa sn and n = 0.35. The volumetric flow rates of air and liquid are 7.48 and 1.75 m3/h, respectively. The air is introduced into the pipeline at 20°C and at a pressure of 1.2 bar. Ascertain the flow pattern occurring in the pipeline. Estimate (a) the average liquid holdup at the midpoint, (b) the pressure gradient for the two phase flow, (c) the maximum achievable drag reduction and the air velocity to accomplish it.

 
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1 An Auditor Is Using The Mean Per Unit Method Of Variables Sampling To Estimate The 2801566

1- An auditor is using the mean-per-unit method of variables sampling to estimate the correct total value of a group of inventory items. Based on the sample, the auditor estimates, with precision 0f +_4% and confidence of 90%, that the correct total is:

2- The accounts receivable file contains a large number of small monetary balances and a small number of large monetary balances, and the auditor expects to find numerous errors in the account balances. The most appropriate sampling techniqueto estimate the monetary amount of error is:

3- An auditor is conducting a survey of perceptions and beliefs of employees concerning an organization health care plan. The best approach toselecting a sampleis to…

4- An auditor is considering a sample size of 50 to estimate the average amount per invoice in a large trucking company. How would theprecision of the sample results be affected if the sample size was increased to 200?

5- In a variables sampling application, if the achieved monetary precision rangeof the statistical sample at a given confidence level is greater than the desired monetary precision range, this is an indication that the…

6- An internal auditor is planning to use monetary unit sampling for testing the monetary value of a large accounts receivable population. The advantages of usingmonetary-unit-sampling (MUS)include all of the following except that it..

 
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1 Analyse The Underlying Conflict In This Dispute What May Be Some Possible Causes O 2875956

QUESTIONS
When answering these questions you can use dot points if you wish.
1. Analyse the underlying conflict in this dispute? What may be some possible causes of conflict and explain in what way the conflict may fall within those domains?
(10 marks)
2. Analyse the possible sources of power in this scenario. Do you anticipate that any power imbalances may be at play during the mediation session?
(10 marks)
3. What might be Keisha’s positions and what might be her underlying concerns?
(4 marks)
4. What might be Dorothy’s positions and what might be her underlying concerns?
(4 marks)
5. What agenda items may be suitable in this scenario? Set out a possible agenda.
(4 marks)
6. How would you assist the parties to generate options?
(4 marks) PTO
7. Prior to the mediation session Evan asks whether he can also attend the mediation session with his mother as her support person. How would you deal with this request?
(4 marks)
8. Your mother is also very old and having difficulty looking after herself. Even though you are the mediator you feel very sorry for Dorothy and find Keisha annoying and irritating during the mediation as she doesn’t seem to be very understanding of Dorothy’s issues, particularly in relation to her medical problem and her need for a support dog. Keisha is also dismissive of Dorothy and wants only to speak with Evan. What knowledge and skills would you use to try to ensure that you remain independent and objective during this mediation?
(5 marks)
9. In a private meeting Dorothy tells you that she is a wealthy woman and can easily afford the cost of sound proofing herself. You talk to her about what offer she is prepared to make and she says that she will offer to pay the total cost of sound proofing of $40 000 to settle this matter today. However when you go back into joint session Dorothy says nothing and does not make the offer she has discussed with you in the private session. Keisha says she can’t afford to pay anything towards the cost of sound proofing. What do you do about Dorothy’s offer that she formulated in the private session, do you ask her to put the offer to Keisha?
(4 marks)
10. You don’t settle at the first mediation and organise a second mediation. Dorothy and Evan organise to have a lawyer attend the second mediation and Keisha has decided not to have a lawyer attend as she can’t afford the legal fees. When the parties are negotiating Dorothy will have her lawyer to give her legal advice and negotiation assistance but Keisha will not. Does this raise any difficulties for the parties in terms of the mediation? Are there any strategies that you could use as a mediator (if you decide that mediation is appropriate) when conducting the mediation?
(5 marks)

Attachments:

MEDIATION-Cas….docx

 
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1 All Of The Following Are Advantages Of Decentralization Except A To Improve Custom 2434356

1) All of the following are advantages ofdecentralization except:

A. to improve customer relations.

B. to encourage use of expert knowledge.

C. to increase employee motivation.

D. to allow goal congruence to be achieved more easily.

2) All of the following are responsibility centersexcept:

A. profit centers.

B. investment centers.

C. customer centers.

D. cost centers.

3) The differences between actual and budgeted figuresare known as:

A. fluctuations.

B. variances.

C. overages.

D. underages.

4) Which of the following is a performance measurecommonly used to assess the performance of investmentcenters?

A. Return on investment

B. Profit margin

C. Current ratio

D. Gross income

5) Residual income is calculated as:

A. revenues less expenses.

B. contribution margin less minimum acceptable income.

C. operating income less minimum acceptable income.

D. sales less variable costs.

6) Which of the following is NOT a strategy fordetermining the transfer price of a product?

A. Related party discounted price

B. Market price

C. Cost or cost-plus a markup

D. Negotiated price

7) Employee capabilities, information systemcapabilities, and the company’s “climate for action” are importantfactors of the:

A. employee perspective.

B. customer perspective.

C. internal business perspective.

D. learning and growth perspective.

8) Assume Cucumber Company expects each division to earnan 8% target rate of return. Assume the Company’s Pickle Divisionhad the following results:

Sales                                       $24,500,000

Operatingincome                        1,250,000

Totalassets                               15,500,000

The Division’s ROI is:

A. 8.1%.

B. 15.8%.

C. 5.1%.

D. 8.0%.

9) Assume Ametrine Company expects each division to earnan 8% target rate of return. Assume the Company’s Division A hadthe following results:

Sales                            $24,500,000

Operatingincome             1,250,000

Totalassets                     15,500,000

The Division’s ROI is:

A. −$10,000.

B. $10,000.

C. −$710,000.

D. $710,000.

10) Which of the following are examples ofKPIs?

A. Average customer satisfaction ratings

B. Number of repeat customers

C. Sales revenue growth

D. All of the above are examples of KPIs

 
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1 All Of The Following Are Reasons For Employers To Purchase Employers Liability El 2835996

1. All of the following are reasons for employers to purchase Employers Liability (EL) except

a) to cover suits arising from injuries or diseases which are not covered under Workers Compensation (WC) laws

b) to cover the suits of dependents for loss of consortium

c) to cover third-party-action-over cases that arise from injuries to an employee

d) to cover suits by employees who seek damages for discriminatory labor practices

2. An employee of Alexander Manufacturing was injured by a defective machine Alexander purchased from Orr Corporation. The employee’s tort action against Orr was successful. Orr, in return, sued Alexander, alleging that Alexander failed to provide proper training on the machine. This claim (Orr vs. Alexander) is covered under Alexander’s EL coverage, and is called a

a) mass tort case

b) third-party-action-over case

c) loss of consortium case

d) joint and several liability case

3. EPL insurance is needed for organizations to help pay for losses arising from each of the following exposures except

(a) sexual harassment

(b) hostile work environment

(c) employee injury at the workplace

(d) failure to promote an employee

4. Linking an insured’s rates and premiums to his own loss history is called

a) schedule rating

b) experience rating

c) merit rating

d) statutory rating

5. A welder working on ships and employed by a shipyard located on a navigable river would be covered under which WC remedy?

a) Jones Act

b) US Longshore & Harborworkers Comp Act

c) Maritime Act

d) State’s WC statutes

6. Matthew lost an arm in a construction accident. After a treatment and recuperation period of several months, during which time he did not work, he returned to work at a lower paying job. What type of disability did Matthew experience?

a) temporary partial

b) permanent total

c) permanent partial

d) temporary total

7. Employees generally may be successful in bringing suit against their employers after an occupational injury in all except which of the following instances?

a) employee’s injuries are intentionally caused by employer

b) employee works as a domestic worker (maid)

c) employee’s injuries are as a result of the employer acting in some capacity other than employer

d) employee is subject to WC statute and employer has purchased WC coverage to meet its financial responsibility

8. “Jones Act” is a federal workers compensation statute designed to provide remedy to employees in which of the following situations?

a) federal employee working in a office at a marina

b) dock worker loading and unloading ships

c) crew member of an oceangoing cargo ship

d) employee of a contractor who is working at a shipyard

9. The function of ballast in an experience modifier calculation is to

a) incorporate insurer’s expenses associated with the insured’s loss history

b) moderate swings between large credits and debits

c) eliminated redundancy in the insured’s loss and history

d) provide credit for losses that have been recuperated through subrogation against a responsible third party

10. The limits of liability provided in the EL section of the WC policy represent the most the insurer will pay for

a) bodily injury (BI) caused by accident; BI caused by total accidents in the policy period; BI caused by disease

b) BI caused by accident; BI caused by disease during the policy period: BI caused by disease to each employee

c) BI caused by accident; BI caused by negligence; BI caused by disease

d) BI to employee; BI to family members; BI total for policy period

11. Before the enactment of WC statutes, employers were protected by common law defenses, which included all of the following except

a) assumption of risk

b) “employment at will” doctrine

c) contributory negligence

d) fellow-servant rule

12. Regarding WC & EL policies, each state has its own version of the policy and there is little standardization across the states. Part One is very lengthy and contains many conditions, provisions and definitions.

a) True

b) False

13. An explosion and fire occurred at Sky Ranch, resulting in injuries to several employees. The limit on the El portion of Sky Ranch’s WC&EL policy is $1,000,000/$1,000,000/$1,000,000. Occupational injuries for employees totaled $5,000,000. How much of the total for employee injuries will the WC&EL policy insurer pay?

a) $1,000,000

b) $3,000,000

c) full amount of benefits required by state’s WC law

d) full amount of benefits required by state’s WC law plus punitive damages for allowing the explosion to occur

14. The U.S. WC system has specific goals, including all except

a) eliminate the delays and costs of litigation to injured employee

b) establish a guarantee of payment to the injured employee, secured by insurance

c) promote industrial hygiene and safety

d) protect the profits of employers

15. The distinction between an independent contractor and an employee is important in the determination of coverage under a WC&EL policy. Which of the following facts would be primarily considered when making such a determination?

a) the number of hours worked each week

b) how the business pays the worker

c) the type of duties performed by the worker (skilled vs. unskilled)

d) how long the worker has been on the job

16. Under item 3.a. on the WC&EL information page, which states should be listed?

a) state(s) in which the insured may expand in the future and begin operations

b) state(s) in which the insured currently operates

c) monopolistic states in which the insured may operate

d) all of the above

17. While trying to pick up a heavy box at work, Scott injured his back and could not work at all for three weeks. What type of disability benefit would Scott receive from his employers WC&EL policy?

a) temporary partial

b) temporary total

c) permanent partial

d) permanent total

18. Factors considered in the development of WC experience modifiers include all except

a) expected or anticipated losses

b) adjusted actual losses

c) general insurer expenses

d) ballast

19. Marshall Company has experienced an increased frequency in its injuries to workers over the past four years, but all of the claims have been very small. Its competitor, Goldman Company, has been unfortunate in that it has incurred two very large losses, including one death claim, in the same time period. Which firm will most likely experience an increase in its experience modifier?

a) Marshall Company

b) Goldman Company

20. An employee of a general contractor working at a US Air Force base in a foreign country is covered for occupational injuries under which remedy?

a) Foreign Voluntary Compensation

b) Defense Base Act

c) Jones Act

d) Federal Employers’ Liability Act

21. Which is the primary goal of experience rating on WC&EL policies?

a) to increase profitability of insurers on their WC line of business

b) to hold individual firms accountable for their loss history and encourage loss control and prevention

c) to punish the insured for having losses

d) none of the above; experience rating is not used for WC&EL

22. Workers compensation claims may be reduced or avoided through

a) employment application screening questions

b) requiring employees to take sick leave for on the job injuries

c) retaliation against workers filing a claim

d) company policies that prohibit visiting a doctor unless the injury is severe

23. Professional liability policies written for financial and legal professionals are often based on contractual obligations. Many suits allege violation of state or federal law. One such important law which generates lawsuits for lack of transparency in financial statements is

a) Workers Compensation Act

b) Dodd-Frank Act (2010)

c) Title IX

d) Financial Modernization Act (1999)

24. Under the WC statutes of most states, three basic requirements must be met when an occupational injury occurs, in order for the injury to be covered for WC benefits. Which of the following is not one of these basic requirements?

a) Injury must arise out of employment

b) Injury must be accidental

c) Injured party must have worked for the employer a minimum of 30 days

d) Injury must occur in course and scope of employment

25. If a worker’s company is domiciled in one state and he crosses state lines to work in another state, how does his company’s WC insurer respond to an injury he has in that other state?

a) Benefits prescribed by the WC statute in the state in which he is injured are the primary source of his benefits.

b) The other state must be listed in item 3.b. of the WC information page for benefits to apply

c) The worker may choose either state’s WC benefits, as long as the other state is listed in item 3.c. of the WC information page.

d) There is no coverage for this employee, since he was injured outside the state in which his company is domiciled.

26. A clerical worker who works in an office right outside the dock of a shipping company on navigable waters usually stays in her office every day, but on this one special occasion she had to go on board a ship to pick up a report. If she is injured on board the ship, under what remedy may she claim benefits for her injury?

a) US Longshore & Harborworkers Comp Act

b) Maritime Act

c) Employers Liability

d) State WC statute

27. If a business has an experience modifier of 1.06, this means

a) the business will have to pay 6% higher rates than its peers because of its loss history.

b) the business will be paying 6% less in rates than its peers because of its loss history.

c) the business has to terminate 6% of its employees.

d) the business is entitled to a 6% dividend at the end of the policy contract term.

28. In order to help insurers identify problem claims trends in worker injuries in advance, the industry is moving towards the use of

a) predictive modeling.

b) credit scoring for workers.

c) denying more claims.

d) reducing risk control measures.

29. The duty to discharge duties with informed judgment as would a reasonable person describes which of the duties of directors and/or officers of an organization?

a) Duty of Care

b) Duty of Loyalty

c) Duty of Disclosure

d) Duty of Obedience

30. Which type of claim or suit is an organization more likely to experience over the course of its operational life cycle?

a) General Liability related accident

b) Employment Practices Liability incident

31. Regarding professional liability insurance contracts, the Insurance Service Office (ISO) has written a nearly perfect version of the policy and there is a lot of standardization across various companies.

a) True

b) False

32. The majority of professional liability policies are written on a special type of insurance contract form, which includes an extended reporting period. An extended reporting period insures that

a) the insured has an additional 90 days of coverage under the policy, after the expiration date

b) the insured has additional time in which to report an incident or claim which occurred during the policy period.

c) The insured has an additional limit of liability, which may be added to the limit under the policy term, in the event a pending claim exceeds the original policy limit.

d) The insured has an unlimited amount of time in which to report incidents or claims, which occurred during the policy period.

33. All of the following types of compensable damages under a professional liability policy except

a) nominal damages

b) property damages

c) consequential damages

d) liquidated damages

34. If claims alleging professional liability misconduct go to trial, often an expert witness is called on to testify. The main reason an expert witness would be called on is to

a) comply with policy conditions that stipulate an expert witness is required

b) prove the defendant is innocent

c) help the jury understand the complicated issues of the case

d) help “pad” the bill against the defendant and therefore provide more compensation for the injured plaintiff.

35. Insurance contracts for professional liability policies are usually written only for traditional professions-law, medicine and education.

a) True

b) False

36. When establishing the reliability of expert witnesses, each of the following are used as criteria except

a) best practices standards

b) written statements from professional organizations

c) articles published in professional trade magazines

d) the net worth of the professional expert witness

37. Which doctrine is the standard for when expert testimony is not needed, because the act speaks for itself and requires no further explanation?

a) res ipsa loquitur

b) carpe diem

c) a priori

d) ad nauseam

38. Professional liability policies differ from general liability policies in many ways, but one significant difference is

a) the length of the term of the policy

b) how the cancellation condition works

c) the consent to settle clause

d) professional liability policies do not require negligence on the part of the insured

39. One type of professional liability policy is written for employment practices liability. The policy form we discussed has specific stipulations. One important feature is

a) defense costs are within the policy limit

b) coverage is written on an occurrence form

c) policy cannot be cancelled once written

d) coverage term is longer than one year

40. What is the most important feature listed on the declarations page of a professional liability policy- one that can have the greatest impact on coverage?

a) retroactive date

b) effective date

c) premium for extended reporting period

d) policy premium

41. In a professional liability policy, liquidated damages may be paid. These damages represent

a) the amount of money to be awarded when assets are liquidated to cover a claim.

b) A specified amount of money stipulated in a contract as the amount to be recovered if a breach of contract occurs.

c) A payment awarded by a court to indemnify an injured party for losses that result indirectly from a civil wrong.

42. Nominal damages may be paid to a plaintiff-bringing suit against a defendant for professional misconduct. These damages are

a) imposed on the defendant to punish him or her or the corporation for wrongful acts.

b) Intended to prove the defendant was strictly liable

c) Usually a flat amount of $1,000,000

d) Awarded to the plaintiff when a breach of contract has occurred but no real financial loss was suffered, and are usually very small dollar amounts.

43. If a patient falls off the doctor’s examination table before the doctor gets into the room, resulting injury would be compensable under the doctor’s

a) medical malpractice (professional liability) coverage

b) general liability coverage

c) workers compensation coverage

d) accident and injury coverage

44. A type of suit based on professional misconduct of insurance companies alleges things such as claims not paid on time, or improper treatment of claimants. This type of suit is based on allegations of

a) “wrongful acts”

b) “bad faith”

c) “unfair trade practices”

d) “false advertising”

45. Screening clients, using signed client waivers and adhering to industry standards are all

a) legal requirements of the professional liability policy

b) defenses against EPL claims

c) risk control measure aimed at reducing professional liability claims

d) requirements of licensing laws governing professionals

46. Allegations of practicing beyond the scope of one’s licenses and negligent selection of materials are common allegations against which group of professionals?

a) general contractors

b) insurance agents

c) home improvement stores

47. In which of the following types of lawsuits might an expert witness be required to establish that a wrongful act has been committed?

a) surgeon leaves a sponge inside a patient after surgery is over

b) driver ran a red light and hit the plaintiff’s car

c) surgeon removes the patient’s healthy right kidney instead of the diseased left kidney

d) doctor prescribed a course of treatment for cancer which makes the patient worse instead of better.

48. If a person does not like the way his new nose turned out after a cosmetic surgeon completes his surgery, because he claims his nose doesn’t “fit him”, a suit against the surgeon may be covered under his

a) medical malpractice (professional liability) policy

b) general liability policy

c) physicians and surgeons policy

d) none of the above

49. Directors and Officers have defined responsibilities, including each of the following except

(a) guarantees a profit for the organization

(b) establishes corporate policy

(c) makes major business decisions

(d) appoints executives

50. A legal action or suit brought against D&Os by shareholders in the name of the corporation is called a

(a) derivative suit

(b) class action suit

(c) non-derivative suit

 
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1 Among The Most Fundamental Problems In Architecting A System With Many Stakeholder 2701510

1. Among the most fundamental problems in architecting a system with many stakeholders is conflicts in purposes and interests. What architectural options might be used to reconcile them?

2. Give an example of the application of the heuristic, In introducing technological change, how you do it is often more important than what you do.

 

 

 
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1 Air In A Room At T0 300 K And P0 100 Kpa Is Drawn Steadily By A Vacuum Pump Throug 3277001

1.Air in a room at T0 = 300 K and P0 = 100 kPa is drawn steadily by a vacuum pump through a 1.4-cm-diameter, 35-cm-long adiabatic tube equipped with a converging nozzle at the inlet. The flow in the nozzle section can be approximated as isentropic, and the average friction factor for the duct can be taken to be 0.018. Determine the maximum mass flow rate of air that can be sucked through this tube and the Mach number at the tube inlet. 2. 1.A pseudoplastic liquid having the following properties of n = 0.53, K = 26.49 N-sn/m2, and p = 975 kg/m3 is being agitated in a system where Dt = 0.304 m, Da = 0.151 m, and N = 5 rev/s. Calculate apparent viscosity, Reynolds number and the power for this system.

Attachments:

3274212-1-flu….docx

 
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1 All Computer Programs Falls Into Broad Application Domain Which Are A 2 B 5 C 7 D 2847194

1.All computer programs falls into broad application domain which are A.2 B.5 C.7 D.10 2. Activity which encompasses activities required to create work products such as model, documents, logs, forms and lists is A.reusability management B.software corruption C.work product preparation and production D.risk management 3.To support UML, Rational Corporation developed A.automated life cycle B.automated tools C.manual life cycle D.manual tools 4. Process tool that provides full process work flow definition and control is A.Igrafx process tools B.Igrafx launch C.objexis team portal D.objexis launch 5. Legacy software must be re-architected to make it viable within a A.embedded environment B.control environment C.network environment D.instrumental environment

 
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1 All Dogs Are Dangerous The Golden Retriever Is A Dog Therefore The Golden Retrieve 2844207

1. All dogs are dangerous. The golden retriever is a dog. Therefore,the golden retriever is dangerous.

Is this argument soundor unsound?All dogs are dangerous. The golden retriever is a dog. Therefore, the golden retriever is dangerous. a.Is this argument sound or unsound?

 
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1 Adjusted Trial Balance 31 March To 31 March 2017 Reports Accountant And 2 Audit Tr 2264051

1. Adjusted Trial Balance: 31 March to 31 March 2017 (Reports ? Accountant) and 2. Audit Trail Report: (Reports ? Accountant ? Audit Trail)Please make sure that Reckon User Name (student number and surname/family name: 9903321Wang) are included in the Audit Trail Report generated by Reckon!!!!!
Document Preview:

1 QUT Business School School of Accountancy BSB110: ACCOUNTING SEMESTER 1, 2017 ASSESSMENT ITEM NUMBER 1: DECISION MAKING IN ACCOUNTING PART B Weighting Total: 10% Due Date and Time: Upload to Turnitin by 5pm Friday 5 May 2017 Assessment submitted after the due date without an approved extension will not be marked and will receive a grade of 1 or 0%. If special circumstances prevent you from meeting the assessment due date, you can apply for an extension. If you don’t have an approved extension you should submit the work you have completed by the due date and it will be marked against the assessment criteria. Submission Requirements: You must upload the following reports in pdf format to Turnitin through Assessment/Assignment (Accounting for Decision Making Part B) Submission Area in the BSB110 Blackboard site by 5pm on 5 May 2017. The reports required from Reckon Software: 1. Adjusted Trial Balance: 31 March to 31 March 2017 (Reports ? Accountant) and 2. Audit Trail Report: (Reports ? Accountant ? Audit Trail) The date range should be from 12/04/2017 to current date (date you are printing). o In those cases where the Audit Trail Report is not submitted in the appropriate format (including your student number and name printed on the report) investigations into plagiarism may be commenced. o If no Audit Trail Report is provided, the assignment will not be marked. • Please make sure that your Reckon User Name (student number and surname/family name eg 9876543Smith) are included in the Audit Trail Report generated by Reckon (they may not be handwritten on afterwards). Group or Individual: Individual This assessment item assesses the following learning outcome: Knowledge and Technological Skills (KS) 1.1 Demonstrate and apply theoretical and technical knowledge across the broad field of business. 1.2 Apply technical and technological skills appropriate and effective for real world business purposes…

Attachments:

Decision-Maki….pdfDecision-Maki….pdfCoolApps-Pty-….qbw

 
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