Need an argumentative essay on Western Art History class (AHIS 1). Needs to be 2 pages. Please no plagiarism.

Visual representation of an artistic work normally has numerous depictions and implication, which words may fail to relay or transmit.

The Statuettes exemplified in Fig. 1 above and similar related three-dimensional works archeologists contend that they emanated from the excavating ,Eshnunna’s floor table3. Mainly, these statuettes their attires encompassed those of the priests’ and priestesses used approximately 2700 BCE. The statuettes clasped hands symbolize constant mood of prayer and complete embracing of their obligations to behold holy statutes besides being the mediators of the lay people4. According to the people’s notion by then, the statuettes were votive figurines. This implied that the faithful would leave the images in the temple as a form, worship, or prayer where in some incidents. the people attributed them to answered prayers. The keen observance of the statuettes’ faces bearing wide stares signifies vigilance regarding their prayerful obligations. The faithful besides leaving the statuettes in the temple, the human priests or priestesses, aroused amid them the utter assurance of receiving what they had inquired from the gods. This was during Mesopotamian period whose characteristics encompassed Warrior art besides narration in stone relief.

Fig. 2 comprises of two artistic dimensional panels commonly referred as “war” and “peace” respectively, depicting the earliest Sumerian’s power5. War art panel depicts soldiers on donkey- drawn chariots at warfront besides utter termination of captive soldiers using axes.&nbsp. The rest paraded before the king naked to face their death via spearing. Conversely, the peace panel comprises of numerous animals and fish besides other merchandises and gifts in a procession heading to a banquet6. The attire of the seated figures comprise of fringed skirts and fleece. implying they are top bureaucrats in the empire after the war and numerous such events that

 

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Need an argumentative essay on Werewolves. Needs to be 5 pages. Please no plagiarism.

The werewolves (though referred to differently from a place to another) were among such species of living creatures, which roamed the thick forests as well as within the dark of the nights and which, according to many societies, were very dangerous, and thus required to be avoided by human beings (Regel1-5). Communities and social groups developed legends, which would explain the existence of these werewolves, the manners to fight them and ways to kill them as they were seen to kill people. Many cultures in the past had much ascription to beliefs of existence of these beings (traces that are in existent even in the present day era). Despite the continued existence of these figures of werewolves within the fiction fields in the film industry, there is a real concern of the extinction of these werewolves as they were. Nevertheless, the existence of the Bigfoot, the Yeti as well as the Sasquatch in the 19th century raises concerns of whether this would point to the evolution of the traditional werewolves. and in case, this would be the explanation to the evolution.

The theory of natural selection and evolution as described by Charles Darwin has been pointed to be the most influential among other theoretical frameworks explaining the existence and extinction of living species. With cultural beliefs, cultural changes and superstitions being of important in explaining the cessation of the werewolves biological reality, the Darwinian evolution theory centered on natural selection and was thus equally central in this explanation. Nevertheless, the critics of such theories of evolution (as they are used in explaining the disappearance of these species werewolves) would have it that this theory does not hold essence in explaining the emergence of other scientific legitimate monsters as they are.

History has it that the existence of werewolves could be traced quite far back though some

 

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Need an argumentative essay on What is the CAPM and of what practical use is it. Needs to be 6 pages. Please no plagiarism.

According to CAPM, the expected return of a portfolio or a security is considered to be equal to the rate of a risk free security plus a premium for the risk factor.

The risk factor is mainly calculated by taking a measure of risk called as beta in the model of CAPM. Beta is considered to compare the returns on a particular security to the market return. The formula for the CAPM is as follows:

The development of the CAPM was mostly to explain the pricing of risky securities in the market. It is considered as a more practical approach to stock valuation as compared to the Markowitz theory which is considered to be more theoretical (Armitage, 2005, p. 51). The assumptions of the Capital Asset Pricing Model are as follows:

I) It is considered that investors in general tend to maximize the utility of their wealth. The preferences of investors are taken into consideration through the concept of utility in the CAPM. Investors considered to be more willing to take risks are considered to have increasing marginal utility with regard to wealth while investors who are considered to be risk averse tend to have less preference for incremental wealth when it is considered to be associated with higher risk.

II) It is considered that investors in general show similar expectations with regard to return and risk. It is considered in this regard that if investors do not have similar expectations, there will be no homogeneity in the conceptions of investors and as such no single efficient frontier line will apply to all investors.

III) It is held that investors tend to make investment decisions on a rational basis depending on their preference for return and risk. Risk is considered to be mainly measured by two factors such as variance and mean. CAPM is considered to assume that rational investors tend to diversify away unsystematic

 

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Need an argumentative essay on What is CPD and how is this relevant to the PG student. Needs to be 4 pages. Please no plagiarism.

The paper tells that from a business discipline perspective, Boud & Hager define CPD as ‘a variety of learning undertakings through which business professionals uphold and progress throughout their profession to guarantee that they maintain their ability to trade effectively, safely, and legally within their developing scope of practice’. In short, CPD is the process through which professionals continue to learn and develop continuously in their careers to keep their knowledge and skills up to date and are able to trade effectively, safely, and legally. Organizational modality mostly involves the entire organization. Through team CPD, HR managers can ensure that workers complete their CPD hours. There are numerous advantages to implementing CPD as a team. However, there are disadvantages to CPD as well. In organizational CPD practices, there is a massive emphasis on flexibility of provisions and a strong need for transparency and justification in making a judgment on provision and performance. From the perspective of an individual professional, the question that needs to be addressed is: what subjects CPD should address. The literature suggests: 1) circumstance and context, 2) knowledge, 3) practices and skills, 4) human factors, 5) Professional values and identities, 6) decision-making, 7) approaches to identifying learning needs, 8) performance and realization. CPD is a process meant to help professionals manage their individual development on an ongoing basis. It is mainly purposed to help professionals, reflect and review what they learn. It is not a tick-box manuscript documenting individual preliminary training. It goes beyond that. Training and development are often used interchangeably, although there is a distinction.

 

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Need an argumentative essay on What extent can we speak of a uniform impact of the cold war on western europe in the period from 1950 to 1980. Needs to be 3 pages. Please no plagiarism.

The discussion here will focus on Western Europe, more specifically Britain, Spain, and Italy.

After WWII, Europe was divided by Western Europe, allies of the United States, and Eastern Europe, which was controlled by puppet Russian communist regimes. The United States wanted an independent Western Europe. However, the United States only wanted an independent Europe, if the countries were capitalist. Whereas the Western Europe countries did not like having Russia control half of Europe, with America influencing the other half, they accepted it to the alternative. Brogi (2001, 76) quotes John Gaddis following statement:

the hard reality was that Britain, France, and their smaller neighbors preferred the known risks of influence to the imponderables of a unified third force that could conceivably fall under German or even Russian control.

Thus for the avoidance of a third world war, Western Europe tolerated the United States influence. “Indeed the Europeans proved incapable of overcoming their ancient rivalries, but were able to adapt and even promote dependence on the United States” (Borgi, 2001, 76). By depending on the United States, Britain, Spain, and Italy could transfer the responsibility of protecting their nations from Russia to the United States. The United States became the protector of Britain, Spain, and Italy during the Cold War. When before the Cold War, these countries were more dependent on European and self preservation against Russia and Germany.

Great Britain and the United States have been allies before and since both world wars. However, the United States, during the Cold War, proved to Great Britain where the true power lay. For example, when the Suez Canal crisis arose, Great Britain and France wanted to resolve the issue militarily (Fraser, 2002, 74). The United States did not want to provoke the Russian backed Egyptian president, Nassar for fear of another world war. To stop France and

 

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