Soap
Complete the SOAP
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Soap Week 4
Download and analyze the case study for this week. Create a SOAP note for disease prevention, health promotion, and acute care of the patient in the clinical case. Your care plan should be based on current evidence and nursing standards of care.
Visit the online library and research for current scholarly evidence (no older than 5 years) to support your nursing actions. In addition, consider visiting government sites such as the CDC, WHO, AHRQ, Healthy People 2020. Provide a detailed scientific rationale justifying the inclusion of this evidence in your plan.
Next determine the ICD-10 classification (diagnoses). The International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM) is the official system used in the United States to classify and assign codes to health conditions and related information.
Download the access codes.
Download the SOAP template to help you design a holistic patient care plan. Utilize the SOAP guidelines to assist you in creating your SOAP note and building your plan of care. You are expected to develop a comprehensive SOAP note based on the given assessment, diagnosis, and advanced nursing interventions. Reflect on what you have learned about care plans through independent research and peer discussions and incorporate the knowledge that you have gained into your patient’s care plan. If the information is not in the provided scenario please consider it normal for SOAP note purposes, if it is abnormal please utilize what you know about the disease process and write what you would expect in the subjective and objective areas of your note.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
South University Nsg5003 Midterm Exam 2019
- Post a question
- Help
- Contact Us
- FAQ
- Homework Answers
- Login
- Not a Member? Sign up!
Alvin (Not rated)3.8 (206)ChatSouth University NSG5003 Midterm Exam 2019
- Main
Report Issue
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?
Question 1 options:
Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Question 2
What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell.
Shift of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton.
Question 3
In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:
Question 3 options:
The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.
Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.
Question 4
What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of lipid accumulation?
Question 4 options:
Obstruction of the common bile duct, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder
Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins
Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins
Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids
Question 5
Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by 101. During an Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?
Question 5 options:
Histamine bound to H2
Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
Epinephrine bound to mast cells
Acetylcholine bound to mast cells
Question 6
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 6 options:
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 7
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
Question 7 options:
Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
Question 8
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the cause of which disease?
Question 8 options:
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Myasthenia gravis
Question 9
Why does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
Question 9 options:
Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T (Tc) cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
Receptors on natural killer (NK) cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of the transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
Antibodies coat the surface of the transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
Question 10
Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
Question 10 options:
Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
Question 11
After the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated, the resulting impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery by which sequence of events?
Question 11 options:
From the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and to decrease parasympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
Question 12
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
Question 12 options:
Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery
Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery
Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery
Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery
Question 13
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
Question 13 options:
Prolonged QT interval
ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
ST depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)
Question 14
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when the patient is lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Question 14 options:
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Pericardial effusion
Restrictive pericarditis
Acute pericarditis
Question 15
Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?
Question 15 options:
Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
Increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), decreased acid-base balance (pH), and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
Stimulation of stretch or J-receptors
Fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Question 16
Which cytokines activated in childhood asthma produce an allergic response?
Question 16 options:
IL-1, IL-2, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
L-8, IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-α)
IL-4, IL-10, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13
Question 17
Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
Question 17 options:
An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Improvement on a trial of asthma medication
Question 18
Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
Question 18 options:
Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 19
What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis?
Question 19 options:
A deficit of IL-1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
A deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
A deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α
A deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
Question 20
Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Question 20 options:
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 21
Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases?
Question 21 options:
Cardiovascular diseases, such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease
Renal diseases, such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis
Gastrointestinal diseases, such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease
Muscular diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia
Question 22
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 22 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 23
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 23 options:
Oncotic pressure
Buffering
Net filtration
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 24
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 24 options:
Capillary hydrostatic
Interstitial hydrostatic
Capillary oncotic
Interstitial oncotic
Question 25
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 25 options:
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 26
Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception of thirst are stimulated by:
Question 26 options:
A decrease in serum sodium
An increase in plasma osmolality
An increase in the glomerular filtration rate
A decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation
Question 27
Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem?
Question 27 options:
The circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.
Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.
Underlying chronic illnesses exist.
The number of mast cells is insufficient.
Question 28
Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:
Question 28 options:
Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters
Inhibiting the production of myelin around the nerves
Increasing the resting membrane potential
Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves
Question 29
Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:
Question 29 options:
Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted
Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Question 30
Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
Question 30 options:
No difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably.
A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura.
A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.
A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull, such as a blunt force trauma.
Question 31
What physiologic change occurs during heat exhaustion?
Question 31 options:
Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water.
Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.
Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperatures.
Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.
Question 32
Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of:
Question 32 options:
Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Hemoglobin, which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells
Albumin, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Amino acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Question 33
Hemosiderosis results in what substance being stored in excess as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?
Question 33 options:
Hemoglobin
Ferritin
Iron
Transferrin
Question 34
What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
Question 34 options:
Acoustic trauma and noise induced
High frequency and low frequency
High frequency and acoustic trauma
Noise induced and low frequency
Question 35
What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
Question 35 options:
Coagulative
Liquefactive
Caseous
Gangrene
Question 36
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 36 options:
Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane.
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 37
In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of:
Question 37 options:
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen
Question 38
What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?
Question 38 options:
Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised.
Skeletal muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis.
The heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension.
The size of the uterus increases during pregnancy.
Question 39
Current research has determined that chemical-induced cellular injury:
Question 39 options:
Affects the permeability of the plasma membrane
Is often the result of the damage caused by reactive free radicals
Is rarely influenced by lipid peroxidation
Seldom involves the cell’s organelles
Question 40
What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide?
Question 40 options:
It increases capillary permeability and causes pain.
It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation.
It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever.
It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.
- Posted: 6 months ago
South University NSG5003 Midterm Exam 2019
Purchase the answer to view it
SouthUniversityNSG5003MidtermExam2019.docx
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $12.99Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
- Applied Sciences
- Architecture and Design
- Biology
- Business & Finance
- Chemistry
- Computer Science
- Geography
- Geology
- Education
- Engineering
- English
- Environmental science
- Spanish
- Government
- History
- Human Resource Management
- Information Systems
- Law
- Literature
- Mathematics
- Nursing
- Physics
- Political Science
- Psychology
- Reading
- Science
- Social Science
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Social Technologies In The Workplace 18857943
As a nurse manager, it is imperative to understand how social technologies can impact productivity, peer-to-peer relationships, and patient safety within the workplace. Collaborating with HR to understand policies and the organization’s expectations related to the use of social technologies allows nurse managers to more effectively and appropriately integrate today’s social platforms while mitigating the occurrence of inappropriate behaviors.
For this week’s Discussion, your Instructor will assign you to one of the scenarios below. You will then use that scenario to investigate the social, ethical, and legal ramifications of social technologies.
Scenario One: You have recently been promoted to charge nurse for the day shift in your department. As a result of this promotion, your former peers are now reporting directly to you. You have been working in your setting for five years and consider many of these peers to be your friends. The way that one of your friends posts on social media sites has always bothered you. Many times, her comments are inappropriate, discussing her negative feelings about “ignorant superiors” and “annoying patients.” You also know that she frequently accesses these sites for extended periods of time while patients are waiting to be helped. Now that she reports directly to you, how do you address this? If your workplace does not have a formal policy on social media use, how can you adapt her behaviors to align with the expectations of nursing professionalism?
Post an explanation of the possible social, ethical, and/or legal ramifications of your assigned scenario. Explain the policy your current or past workplace has on the use of social technologies and how effective you believe the policy is. If your workplace does not have a policy, explain what the accepted practices or expectations are for your setting. Has lack of policy led to any problems? Support your responses by referencing authentic examples from the workplace and this week’s Learning Resources as appropriate.
Alichnie, C. (2012). Social media and nursing. Pennsylvania Nurse, 67(1), 3–10. Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
This article discusses the use of social media in nursing. The author determines that social media can be a means to an end if it’s used wisely, professionally, and within legal and ethical boundaries.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
South University Nsg5003 Final Exam 2019
- Post a question
- Help
- Contact Us
- FAQ
- Homework Answers
- Login
- Not a Member? Sign up!
Alvin (Not rated)3.8 (206)ChatSouth University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
- Main
Report Issue
Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)
Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:
Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.
Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.
Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)
What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:
Respiratory distress
Sun intolerance
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations
Death(not confirm)
Question 6 (5 points)
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.
The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:
a)Oncotic pressure
b)Buffering
c)Net filtration
d)Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:
a)Capillary hydrostatic
b)Interstitial hydrostatic
c)Capillary oncotic
d)Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:
a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)
It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:
a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)
What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:
a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.
b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.
c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.
d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)
A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:
a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+
b)Intracellular and extracellular K+
c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+
d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)
In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:
a)Hypopolarization
b)Hyperexcitability
c)Depolarization
d)Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)
Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:
a)20:1
b)1:20
c)10:2
d)10:5
Question 15 (5 points)
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:
a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response
c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
d)Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)
Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:
a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development
b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair
c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant
d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:
a)Are antigen-presenting molecules
b)Bind antigens to antibodies
c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process
d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:
a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell
b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate
c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:
a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors
b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells
c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs
d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:
a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)
b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)
d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:
a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:
a)Complement-mediated cell lysis
b)Phagocytosis by macrophages
c)Phagocytosis in the spleen
d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Question 23 (5 points)
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:
a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:
a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens
b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens
c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified
d)Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:
a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells
d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)
Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:
a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)
What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:
a)Infection
b)Ultraviolet damage
c)Pain
d)Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)
When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:
a)Age at the time of diagnosis
b)Participation in clinical trials
c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)
Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:
a)Pons
b)Midbrain
c)Cerebellum
d)Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)
The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:
a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury
b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury
d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:
a)Craniosacral dysreflexia
b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia
c)Autonomic hyperreflexia
d)Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:
a)In larger veins
b)Near capillary sphincters
c)At branches of arteries
d)On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:
a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus
d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)
Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:
a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:
a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b)Diminished levels of TRH
c)High levels of TSH
d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:
a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi
c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:
a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin
c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas
d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas
Question 38 (5 points)
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:
a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
d)T cells
Question 39 (5 points)
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:
a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
a)The Somogyi effect
b)The dawn phenomenon
c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Question 41 (5 points)
Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells
Question 41 options:
a)Perimetrium
b)Endocervical canal
c)Myometrium
d)Vagina
Question 42 (5 points)
Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Question 42 options:
a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina
b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus
c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus
d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina
Question 43 (5 points)
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Question 43 options:
a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia
Question 44 (5 points)
In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?
Question 44 options:
a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes
b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes
Question 45 (5 points)
Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Question 45 options:
a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.
b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Question 46 (5 points)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Question 46 options:
a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood
d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood
Question 47 (5 points)
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
Question 47 options:
a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.
d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Question 48 (5 points)
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Question 48 options:
a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
Question 49 (5 points)
What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?
Question 49 options:
a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.
b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.
c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.
d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.
Question 50 (5 points)
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
Question 50 options:
a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b)Bone marrow function depression
c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
- Posted: 6 months ago
South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
Purchase the answer to view it
- NSG5003FINALEXAM.docx
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $14.99Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
- Applied Sciences
- Architecture and Design
- Biology
- Business & Finance
- Chemistry
- Computer Science
- Geography
- Geology
- Education
- Engineering
- English
- Environmental science
- Spanish
- Government
- History
- Human Resource Management
- Information Systems
- Law
- Literature
- Mathematics
- Nursing
- Physics
- Political Science
- Psychology
- Reading
- Science
- Social Science
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Social Media In Healthcare 19267087
175- to 265-word response to the following question:
- How does social media influence the health care industry? Provide examples.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Sou Nsg6005 Week 6 Assignment 2 Quiz Latest 2017
- Post a question
- Help
- Contact Us
- FAQ
- Homework Answers
- Login
- Not a Member? Sign up!
quickmaster (1)3.6 (5)ChatSOU NSG6005 Week 6 Assignment 2 Quiz latest 2017
- Main
Report Issue
Question
Question 1. Xi, a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Which of the following actions would you take for appropriate decision making?
Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only give her four tablets with no refills.
Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.
Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).
Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan.
Question 2. Chronic pain is a complex problem. Some specific strategies to deal with it include ________.
telling the patient to “let pain be your guide” to using treatment therapies
prescribing pain medication on a pro re nata (PRN) basis to keep down the amount used
scheduling return visits on a regular basis rather than waiting for poor pain control to drive the need for an appointment
All the given options
Question 3. Phil is starting treatment with febuxostat (Uloric). Education of patients starting febuxostat includes which one of the following instructions?
Gout may worsen with therapy.
Febuxostat may cause severe diarrhea.
The patients should consume a high-calcium diet.
The patients will need frequent CBC monitoring.
Question 4. The Pain Management Contract is most appropriate for:
Patients with a history of chemical dependency or possible inappropriate use of pain medications
All patients with chronic pain who will require long-term use of opiates
Patients who have a complex drug regimen
Patients who see multiple providers for pain control
Question 5. Patients whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for _________.
metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes
omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease
naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain
furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention
Question 6. Sallie has been taking 10 mg of prednisone per day for the past six months. She should be assessed for ________.
gout
iron deficiency anemia
osteoporosis
renal dysfunction
Question 7. All NSAIDs have an FDA black box warning regarding __________.
potential for causing life-threatening GI bleeds
increased risk of developing systemic arthritis with prolonged use
risk of life-threatening rashes, including Stevens-Johnson
potential for transient changes in serum glucose
Question 8. Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?
Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
Question 9. Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.
ibuprofen (Advil)
acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
oxycodone (OxyContin)
oral morphine (Roxanol)
Question 10. Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.
serum glucose
stool culture
folate levels
vitamin B12
Question 11. Jamie has fractured his ankle and has received a prescription for acetaminophen and hydrocodone (Vicodin). Education when prescribing Vicodin includes which one of the following instructions?
It is OK to double the dose of Vicodin if the pain is severe.
Vicodin is not habit forming.
He should not take any other acetaminophen-containing medications.
Vicodin may cause diarrhea; therefore, he should increase his fluid intake.
Question 12. Patients prescribed aspirin therapy require education regarding the signs of aspirin toxicity. An early sign of aspirin toxicity is _____.
black, tarry stools
vomiting
tremors
tinnitus
Question 13. Henry is eighty-two years old and takes two aspirin every morning to treat the arthritis pain in his back. He states that the aspirin helps him to “get going” each day. Lately, he has had some heartburn from the aspirin. After ruling out an acute GI bleed, what would be an appropriate course of treatment for Henry?
Add an H2 blocker such as ranitidine to his therapy.
Discontinue the aspirin and switch him to Vicodin for the pain.
Decrease the aspirin dose to one tablet daily.
Have Henry take an antacid fifteen minutes before taking the aspirin each day.
Question 14. Patients with RA who are on chronic low-dose prednisone will need co-treatment with which medications to prevent further adverse effects?
A bisphosphonate
Calcium supplementation
Vitamin D
All of the above
Question 15. One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used due to which of the following reasons?
They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen.
Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain.
They have minimal GI irritation.
Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs.
Question 16. Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?
Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
Question 17. Jayla is a nine-year-old who has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years. She is missing up to a week of school each month. Her headache diary confirms she averages four or five migraines per month. Which of the following would be appropriate?
Prescribe amitriptyline (Elavil) daily, start at a low dose and increase the dose slowly every two weeks until effective in eliminating migraines.
Encourage her mother to give her Excedrin Migraine (aspirin, acetaminophen, and caffeine) at the first sign of a headache to abort the headache.
Prescribe propranolol (Inderal) to be taken daily for at least three months.
Explain that it is rare for a nine-year-old to get migraines and that she needs an MRI to rule out a brain tumor.
Question 18. Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.
inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
Question 19. Pathological similarities and differences between acute pain and chronic pain include which of the following options?
Both have decreased levels of endorphins.
Chronic pain has a predominance of C-neuron stimulation.
Acute pain is most commonly associated with irritation of peripheral nerves.
Acute pain is diffuse and hard to localize.
Question 20. Different areas of the brain are involved in specific aspects of pain. The reticular and limbic systems in the brain influence ______.
the sensory aspects of pain
the discriminative aspects of pain
the motivational aspects of pain
the cognitive aspects of pain
- Posted: 2 years ago
SOU NSG6005 Week 6 Assignment 2 Quiz latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it
- sounsg6005Week6Assignment2Quizlatest2017.docx
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $20Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
- Applied Sciences
- Architecture and Design
- Biology
- Business & Finance
- Chemistry
- Computer Science
- Geography
- Geology
- Education
- Engineering
- English
- Environmental science
- Spanish
- Government
- History
- Human Resource Management
- Information Systems
- Law
- Literature
- Mathematics
- Nursing
- Physics
- Political Science
- Psychology
- Reading
- Science
- Social Science
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Someone To Help Me
I need someone to help me in my epidomolgy assignment due in 12hrs
Please get to me at [email protected]
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Some One Has Experience In Electrocardiograph Ecg
please do not send me if you don’t have experience in this class i need someone help me on exam ,and please if you have a good experience send me a message.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Solving Delay In Specimenblood Result
To Prepare:
- Review the concepts of informatics as presented in the Resources.
- Reflect on the role of a nurse leader as a knowledge worker.
- Consider how knowledge may be informed by data that is collected/accessed.
The Assignment:
- Explain the concept of a knowledge worker.
- Define and explain nursing informatics and highlight the role of a nurse leader as a knowledge worker.
- Develop a simple infographic to help explain these concepts.
NOTE: For guidance on infographics, including how to create one in PowerPoint, see “How to Make an Infographic in PowerPoint” presented in the Resources.
- Your PowerPoint should Include the hypothetical scenario you originally shared in the Discussion Forum. Include your examination of the data that you could use, how the data might be accessed/collected, and what knowledge might be derived from that data. Be sure to incorporate feedback received from your colleagues’ responses.
This is the discussion
Nursing informatics is defined as the combination of nursing science, information science, and computer science (McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G.,2 018). “Nursing informatics roles have taken many forms in focus and function over the last decades. Whereby the role of nursing informatics specialists will continue to evolve at an increasingly rapid rate in the and unfolding of new health care paradigms and connectivity between care providers and patients” (Nagle, L. M., Sermeus, W. & Junger, A. (2017). My focus is on how my current and previous experiences in different organizations collect blood samples/specimens from patients. Organizations should utilize existing data such as the patient’s hand band and employee identification card or numbers more efficiently. When drawing a patient’s blood sample, it should require a scan by the staff drawing the blood specimen. All employee already has an identification number, and patients have a medical identification number that is already in use for other purposes, such as when administering medications.
After the employees scan their badge or input, their identification first, then they will proceed to scanning the patient identification band before collecting the blood sample/ specimens. scanning patient’s wrist band and employee badge will assist in determining the accurate time the blood sample was collected, the time it was received in the lab, and when the results are recorded into patients records or nurses is informed of the outcome. In some cases, I personally place multiple calls to the laboratory to get lab results for my patient. The laboratory stating the specimen is processing. When the specimen results are finally ready, the time that the sample was received initially is the time the laboratory documents the specimen results. Furthermore, a nurse leader should collect data from patients scheduled lab orders from the time the order is placed, specimen collections time, time received in laboratory and the time the results is available to other clinicians. By doing this, it will eliminate the delay, discrepancies of specimens among nurses, laboratory staffs, and provide timely efficient treatments from physicians.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
We Accept
