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Alvin (Not rated)3.8 (206)ChatSouth University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
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Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)
Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:
Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.
Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.
Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)
What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:
Respiratory distress
Sun intolerance
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations
Death(not confirm)
Question 6 (5 points)
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.
The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:
a)Oncotic pressure
b)Buffering
c)Net filtration
d)Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:
a)Capillary hydrostatic
b)Interstitial hydrostatic
c)Capillary oncotic
d)Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:
a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)
It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:
a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)
What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:
a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.
b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.
c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.
d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)
A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:
a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+
b)Intracellular and extracellular K+
c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+
d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)
In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:
a)Hypopolarization
b)Hyperexcitability
c)Depolarization
d)Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)
Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:
a)20:1
b)1:20
c)10:2
d)10:5
Question 15 (5 points)
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:
a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response
c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
d)Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)
Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:
a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development
b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair
c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant
d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:
a)Are antigen-presenting molecules
b)Bind antigens to antibodies
c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process
d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:
a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell
b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate
c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:
a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors
b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells
c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs
d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:
a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)
b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)
d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:
a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:
a)Complement-mediated cell lysis
b)Phagocytosis by macrophages
c)Phagocytosis in the spleen
d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Question 23 (5 points)
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:
a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:
a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens
b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens
c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified
d)Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:
a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells
d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)
Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:
a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)
What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:
a)Infection
b)Ultraviolet damage
c)Pain
d)Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)
When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:
a)Age at the time of diagnosis
b)Participation in clinical trials
c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)
Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:
a)Pons
b)Midbrain
c)Cerebellum
d)Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)
The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:
a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury
b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury
d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:
a)Craniosacral dysreflexia
b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia
c)Autonomic hyperreflexia
d)Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:
a)In larger veins
b)Near capillary sphincters
c)At branches of arteries
d)On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:
a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus
d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)
Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:
a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:
a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b)Diminished levels of TRH
c)High levels of TSH
d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:
a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi
c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:
a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin
c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas
d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas
Question 38 (5 points)
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:
a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
d)T cells
Question 39 (5 points)
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:
a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
a)The Somogyi effect
b)The dawn phenomenon
c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Question 41 (5 points)
Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells
Question 41 options:
a)Perimetrium
b)Endocervical canal
c)Myometrium
d)Vagina
Question 42 (5 points)
Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Question 42 options:
a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina
b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus
c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus
d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina
Question 43 (5 points)
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Question 43 options:
a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia
Question 44 (5 points)
In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?
Question 44 options:
a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes
b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes
Question 45 (5 points)
Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Question 45 options:
a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.
b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Question 46 (5 points)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Question 46 options:
a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood
d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood
Question 47 (5 points)
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
Question 47 options:
a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.
d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Question 48 (5 points)
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Question 48 options:
a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
Question 49 (5 points)
What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?
Question 49 options:
a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.
b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.
c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.
d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.
Question 50 (5 points)
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
Question 50 options:
a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b)Bone marrow function depression
c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
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South University Nsg5003 Final Exam 2019
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Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)
Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:
Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.
Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.
Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)
What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:
Respiratory distress
Sun intolerance
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations
Death(not confirm)
Question 6 (5 points)
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.
The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:
a)Oncotic pressure
b)Buffering
c)Net filtration
d)Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:
a)Capillary hydrostatic
b)Interstitial hydrostatic
c)Capillary oncotic
d)Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:
a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)
It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:
a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)
What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:
a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.
b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.
c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.
d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)
A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:
a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+
b)Intracellular and extracellular K+
c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+
d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)
In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:
a)Hypopolarization
b)Hyperexcitability
c)Depolarization
d)Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)
Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:
a)20:1
b)1:20
c)10:2
d)10:5
Question 15 (5 points)
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:
a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response
c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
d)Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)
Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:
a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development
b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair
c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant
d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:
a)Are antigen-presenting molecules
b)Bind antigens to antibodies
c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process
d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:
a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell
b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate
c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:
a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors
b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells
c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs
d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:
a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)
b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)
d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:
a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:
a)Complement-mediated cell lysis
b)Phagocytosis by macrophages
c)Phagocytosis in the spleen
d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Question 23 (5 points)
Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:
a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:
a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens
b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens
c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified
d)Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:
a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells
d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)
Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:
a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)
What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:
a)Infection
b)Ultraviolet damage
c)Pain
d)Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)
When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:
a)Age at the time of diagnosis
b)Participation in clinical trials
c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)
Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:
a)Pons
b)Midbrain
c)Cerebellum
d)Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)
The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:
a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury
b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury
d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:
a)Craniosacral dysreflexia
b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia
c)Autonomic hyperreflexia
d)Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:
a)In larger veins
b)Near capillary sphincters
c)At branches of arteries
d)On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:
a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus
d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)
Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:
a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:
a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b)Diminished levels of TRH
c)High levels of TSH
d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:
a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi
c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:
a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin
c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas
d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas
Question 38 (5 points)
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:
a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
d)T cells
Question 39 (5 points)
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:
a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
a)The Somogyi effect
b)The dawn phenomenon
c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Question 41 (5 points)
Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells
Question 41 options:
a)Perimetrium
b)Endocervical canal
c)Myometrium
d)Vagina
Question 42 (5 points)
Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Question 42 options:
a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina
b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus
c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus
d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina
Question 43 (5 points)
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Question 43 options:
a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia
Question 44 (5 points)
In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?
Question 44 options:
a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes
b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes
Question 45 (5 points)
Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Question 45 options:
a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.
b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Question 46 (5 points)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Question 46 options:
a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood
d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood
Question 47 (5 points)
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
Question 47 options:
a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.
d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Question 48 (5 points)
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Question 48 options:
a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
Question 49 (5 points)
What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?
Question 49 options:
a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.
b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.
c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.
d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.
Question 50 (5 points)
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
Question 50 options:
a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b)Bone marrow function depression
c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019
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South University Nsg5003 Midterm Exam 2019
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?
Question 1 options:
Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive
Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
Question 2
What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell.
Shift of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton.
Question 3
In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:
Question 3 options:
The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.
Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.
Question 4
What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of lipid accumulation?
Question 4 options:
Obstruction of the common bile duct, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder
Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins
Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins
Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids
Question 5
Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by 101. During an Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?
Question 5 options:
Histamine bound to H2
Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
Epinephrine bound to mast cells
Acetylcholine bound to mast cells
Question 6
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 6 options:
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 7
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
Question 7 options:
Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
Question 8
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the cause of which disease?
Question 8 options:
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Myasthenia gravis
Question 9
Why does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
Question 9 options:
Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T (Tc) cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
Receptors on natural killer (NK) cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of the transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
Antibodies coat the surface of the transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
Question 10
Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:
Question 10 options:
Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
Question 11
After the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated, the resulting impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery by which sequence of events?
Question 11 options:
From the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and to decrease parasympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
From the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity
Question 12
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
Question 12 options:
Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery
Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery
Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery
Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery
Question 13
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
Question 13 options:
Prolonged QT interval
ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
ST depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)
Question 14
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when the patient is lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Question 14 options:
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Pericardial effusion
Restrictive pericarditis
Acute pericarditis
Question 15
Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?
Question 15 options:
Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
Increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), decreased acid-base balance (pH), and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
Stimulation of stretch or J-receptors
Fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Question 16
Which cytokines activated in childhood asthma produce an allergic response?
Question 16 options:
IL-1, IL-2, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
L-8, IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-α)
IL-4, IL-10, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13
Question 17
Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
Question 17 options:
An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Improvement on a trial of asthma medication
Question 18
Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
Question 18 options:
Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the vas deferens
A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 19
What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis?
Question 19 options:
A deficit of IL-1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)
A deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
A deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α
A deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
Question 20
Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Question 20 options:
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 21
Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases?
Question 21 options:
Cardiovascular diseases, such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease
Renal diseases, such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis
Gastrointestinal diseases, such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease
Muscular diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia
Question 22
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 22 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 23
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 23 options:
Oncotic pressure
Buffering
Net filtration
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 24
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 24 options:
Capillary hydrostatic
Interstitial hydrostatic
Capillary oncotic
Interstitial oncotic
Question 25
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 25 options:
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 26
Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception of thirst are stimulated by:
Question 26 options:
A decrease in serum sodium
An increase in plasma osmolality
An increase in the glomerular filtration rate
A decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation
Question 27
Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem?
Question 27 options:
The circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.
Complement and chemotaxis are deficient.
Underlying chronic illnesses exist.
The number of mast cells is insufficient.
Question 28
Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:
Question 28 options:
Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters
Inhibiting the production of myelin around the nerves
Increasing the resting membrane potential
Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves
Question 29
Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:
Question 29 options:
Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted
Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
Question 30
Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
Question 30 options:
No difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably.
A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura.
A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.
A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull, such as a blunt force trauma.
Question 31
What physiologic change occurs during heat exhaustion?
Question 31 options:
Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water.
Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.
Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperatures.
Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.
Question 32
Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of:
Question 32 options:
Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Hemoglobin, which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells
Albumin, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Amino acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
Question 33
Hemosiderosis results in what substance being stored in excess as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?
Question 33 options:
Hemoglobin
Ferritin
Iron
Transferrin
Question 34
What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
Question 34 options:
Acoustic trauma and noise induced
High frequency and low frequency
High frequency and acoustic trauma
Noise induced and low frequency
Question 35
What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
Question 35 options:
Coagulative
Liquefactive
Caseous
Gangrene
Question 36
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 36 options:
Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane.
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 37
In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of:
Question 37 options:
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen
Question 38
What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?
Question 38 options:
Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised.
Skeletal muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis.
The heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension.
The size of the uterus increases during pregnancy.
Question 39
Current research has determined that chemical-induced cellular injury:
Question 39 options:
Affects the permeability of the plasma membrane
Is often the result of the damage caused by reactive free radicals
Is rarely influenced by lipid peroxidation
Seldom involves the cell’s organelles
Question 40
What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide?
Question 40 options:
It increases capillary permeability and causes pain.
It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation.
It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever.
It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.
South University NSG5003 Midterm Exam 2019
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Special Diagnosis
/in Uncategorized /by developerExplain the psychological issues that may result from your topic.
Describe the most effective assessment measure that could be used, and explain why you selected this.
Explain the treatment options available for children and adolescents involved with your selected disorder.
Explain how culture may influence treatment.
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Special Topics In Healthcare Financial Management Qn 1 Page
/in Uncategorized /by developerSee the attached documents for details. DO NOT PLAGIARIZE.
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Special Work A2c7
/in Uncategorized /by developersee attached
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Specific Ways Early Conceptualization About Nursing Theory Can Be Applied To Advanced Practice Nursing
/in Uncategorized /by developerDiscuss and provide 2 specific ways Early Conceptualization About Nursing Theory can be applied to advanced practice nursing. Identify one MSN Essential that most relates to this particular topic.
*Under the Class Resources tab, students will find the MSN Essentials which help to guide and shape graduate nursing education. Select 1 of these essentials that most closely reflect the concepts of this theory.**
3. All discussion posts must be minimum 250 words, references must be cited in APA format, and must include minimum of 2 scholarly resources published within the past 5-7 years. Please be sure to cite your reference(s) in APA format, at the end of your posting
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Speech 19102631
/in Uncategorized /by developerAssignment 1.2: Perform an Introduction Speech
Perform an Introduction Speech
Objective
Perform an introduction speech
Assignment Overview
In this assignment, you will create a delivery outline and deliver an introduction speech.
Deliverables
Step 1 Create an outline.
Using the preparation outline you created in Assignment 1.1, create a delivery outline for your introduction speech.
Step 2 Practice your speech.
Practice using your delivery outline to deliver your introduction speech. Print your delivery outline so you can use it as your speaker notes.
Step 3 Present your speech.
Step 4 Answer the questions.
In a one-page (250-word) paper, address the following:
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Speech 19134025
/in Uncategorized /by developerPrepare a Ceremonial Speech
Objective
Prepare a ceremonial speech
Assignment Overview
In this writing assignment, you will review the process used to select a topic and determine the specific purpose and main points for a ceremonial speech.
Deliverables
A one-page (250-word) outline and reference list – THIS WORK WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED AFTER FEBRUARY 23. THIS IS THE LAST DAY FOR ALL STUDENT WORK. PLEASE BE ON TIME SO YOU DO NOT EARN A ZERO FOR THIS ASSIGNMENT.
Step 1 Plan your speech.
Select an occasion or situation for your ceremonial speech.
Step 2 Review the process of thesis development.
Review the information in Lesson 4 of the course about creating a specific purpose statement and thesis, deriving a question based on the thesis, and using the question to determine the main points to cover in the speech. Consider reviewing the documents you created for Assignment 4.1: Developing Purpose and Thesis Statements and Assignment 4.2: Get to the Point.
Step 3 Enter topic information.
In a document for this assignment, determine and enter the following information about your topic.
Step 4 Select a pattern.
Based on your knowledge of patterns of organizing speech information, select a pattern of organization to use to create an outline for your speech.
Step 5 Create an outline.
Depending on the pattern of speech that you chose, create a formal outline for your ceremonial speech. Be sure to include the Introduction, Body, and Conclusion sections in your preparation outline.
Step 6 Create a reference list.
Include any and all sources you used to locate information for your outline.
Step 7 Save and submit your assignment.
When you have completed the assignment, save a copy for yourself in an easily accessible place and submit a copy to your instructor using the dropbox. THIS WORK WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED AFTER FEBRUARY 23. THIS IS THE LAST DAY FOR ALL STUDENT WORK. PLEASE BE ON TIME SO YOU DO NOT EARN A ZERO FOR THIS ASSIGNMENT.
Submission status
Submission statusNo attemptGrading statusNot gradedDue dateSaturday, 23 February 2019, 12:55 AMTime remaining2 days 15 hoursLast modified-Make changes to your submissionSkip Navigation
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Speech 19394381
/in Uncategorized /by developerspeech on global warming
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Speech Pattern
/in Uncategorized /by developerSpeech Patterns
Speech Patterns
Objectives
Assignment Overview
In this practice exercise, you will explore the importance of organizing the main ideas of a speech into a pattern.
Deliverables
A two-page (500-word) paper and answers to exercise questions (This is all you will submit, two pages, about 500 words. If it takes you slightly more pages, that is okay. No worries. But, you must have a minimum of 500 words.)
Step 1 Write definitions for patterns of organization.
In a two-page (500-word) paper, write a brief definition or description in your own words for each of the following patterns used to structure the flow of information in a speech: (This is for the first section of your paper that includes at least 500 words. Just write definitions for these patterns of organization. )
Step 2 Read the list below of statements about the topic of friendship.
Determine which of the patterns of organization might be useful to create a logical flow of information for the statements. Select one pattern of organization to use to organize the statements. It can be one of the six that you defined in Step 2 or another one from any of the lesson materials or another source.(Choose just one pattern of organization for the topic of friendship as shown next to Step 2 in the directions. If I were you, I would choose one that you defined in the first part of this assignment, but you can go to the remaining ones from any lesson materials. If you choose one different from the six you defined, then be sure to define it for us in the beginnning. This is provided for you to organize outside the assignment. If you see below, you will see that you will submit it eventually, but first, you need to organize it per your choice of style.)
Statements About Friendship*
*These statements are from the Organizing a Scrambled Outline activity on the Course Compass website
Step 3 Arrange the statements about friendship.
Arrange the statements to form a logical flow. Modify your arrangement as many times as needed to fit one of the organizational patterns you learned about in the lesson.(Here is where you take the statements about friendship shown above and organize them in the arrangement you chose. You may have to think about this for a bit to make sure you organize it correctly for your chosen style.)
Step 4 Write the heading Introduction.
On the top of a sheet of blank paper, write the heading Introduction. Determine which statements you would include in the speech introduction. Then fill in the rest of the components of an introduction. (This is the second part of the assignment. Just start it on another page with the heading as described here. Use the statements about friendship shown above and choose which ones would be the introduction.)
Step 5 Write the heading Body.
On the top of a second sheet of blank paper, write the heading Body. Determine which statements you would include in the body of the speech. (This is NOT a separate page unless you are out of room on. Begin Body heading and then choose the statements that go in that area.)
Step 6 Write the heading Conclusion.
On the top of a third sheet of blank paper, write the heading Conclusion. Determine which statements you would include in the conclusion of the speech. Then fill in the rest of the components of a conclusion. (You may need more pages since headings take up room. That is okay, just use another page and follow the directions here for the Conclusion area. Be sure you label each area.)
Step 7 Enter the information.
In your word processing document, enter the headings and associated statements. (This just means to get your work ready to submit.)
Step 8 Answer the questions.
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