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NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
Question 2
A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond?
a. Aldosterone
b. Testosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Prolactin
Question 3
A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Endocytosis
Question 4
A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production.Which of the following would accompany this condition?
a. Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Increased anterior pituitary stimulation
c. Decreased T4
d. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Question 5
A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. Which of the following would the nurse expect following surgery?
a. Increased serum calcium
b. Decreased bone formation
c. Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
d. Increased calcitonin
Question 6
A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find?
a. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies
b. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones
d. Increased circulation of iodine
Question 7
A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis?
a. Fasting plasma glucose levels
b. Random serum glucose levels
c. Genetic testing
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements
Question 8
A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is a dysfunction in the:
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Pars intermedia
d. Pituitary stalk
Question 9
While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia, which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.
a. Neurogenic
b. Nephrogenic
c. Psychogenic
d. Allogenic
Question 10
When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
a. Pharmacologic
b. Permissive
c. Biphasic
d. Direct
Question 11
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?
a. Polyuria
b. Edema
c. Vomiting
d. Thirst
Question 12
An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
a. Growth hormone (GH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Epinephrine
Question 13
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hypokalemia
Question 14
A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body.What is the nurse’s best response? ADH is important in:
a. The body’s water balance and urine concentration
b. Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations
c. Follicular maturation
d. Regulation of metabolic processes
Question 15
A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
a. Renal toxicity
b. Episodes of hypoglycemia
c. Hypotension
d. Type 2 DM
Question 16
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
a. Melatonin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Somatostatin
Question 17
A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?
a. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
b. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. SIADH
Question 18
While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism.
a. High
b. Low
c. Steady
d. Variable
Question 19
If a patient’s posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?
a. PRF
b. ADH
c. ACTH
d. GH
Question 20
An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond?
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Cancer
c. Pregnancy
d. Heart failure
Question 21
What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma?
a. Coma
b. Visual disturbances
c. Confused states
d. Breathing abnormalities
Question 22
A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
a. Hypovolemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyponatremia
Question 23
A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the “flu” for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state?
a. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation.
b. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure.
c. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones.
d. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.
Question 24
A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find?
a. Decreased IGF-1
b. Hypotension
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. Height increases
Question 25
A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes?
a. Sodium, chloride, phosphate
b. Calcium, magnesium, potassium
c. Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride
d. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate
Question 26
A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?
a. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect
b. Obesity and lack of exercise
c. Immune destruction of the pancreas
d. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
Question 27
When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by:
a. Pituitary hyposecretion
b. Parathyroid adenoma
c. Parathyroid gland injury
d. Hypothalamic inactivity
Question 28
A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
a. Increased blood volume
b. Increased urine osmolality
c. Increased urine volume
d. Increased arterial vasoconstriction
Question 29
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient?
a. Corticosteroid B globulin
b. Sex hormone-binding globulin
c. Thyroid-binding globulin
d. Albumin
Question 30
A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
a. Dilutional hyponatremia
b. Dehydration from polyuria
c. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia
d. Metabolic acidosis
Question 31
A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for:
a. Negative feedback
b. Positive feedback
c. Down-regulation
d. Up-regulation
Question 32
A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:
a. A normal-sized thyroid
b. A small discrete thyroid nodule
c. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
Question 33
A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement?
a. Dopaminergic agonists
b. Calcium
c. Insulin
d. Radiation
Question 34
A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen.What is the nurse’s best response? If left untreated, the child would have:
a. Mental retardation and stunted growth
b. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer
c. Hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder
d. Liver, kidney, and pancreas failure
Question 35
Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is:
a. Decreased blood flow to the eye
b. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball
c. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells
d. Local lactic acidosis
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NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. …
- Not rated
Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
…
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Nurs
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Nurs6001 Week 1 Quiz
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
QUESTION 1
When will you lose access to your completed courses (excluding this Student Readiness Orientation)?
a. Never
b. 30 days after the course end date
c. 60 days after the course end date
d. 120 days after the course end date
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 2
When you submit an assignment, when should you have the assignment complete by on the day assigned?
a. 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time (MT)—which is 1:59 a.m. Eastern Time (ET) the next day; the time stamp in the classroom will reflect Eastern Time (ET), regardless of your time zone
b. 11:59 p.m. Central Time (CT)—which is 10:59 p.m. Mountain Time (MT); the time stamp in the classroom will reflect Mountain Time (MT), regardless of your time zone
c. 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time (ET)—which is 8:59 p.m. Pacific Time (PT); the time stamp in the classroom will reflect Pacific Time (PT), regardless of your time zone
d. 10:59 p.m. Mountain Time (MT)—which is 12:59 a.m. Eastern Time (ET) the next day; the time stamp in the classroom will reflect Eastern Time (ET), regardless of your time zone
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 3
Where in your online course will you find the contact information for your Instructor?
a. Syllabus
b. Student Support
c. Contact the Instructor
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 4
If you are having trouble accessing your online classroom, what should you do first?
a. Clean your browser’s cookies and cache
b. Check firewall settings
c. Deactivate pop-up blockers
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 5
In an online course, students can participate in the online classroom and submit assignments whenever it is convenient for them to do so.
True
False
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 6
In which area will you retrieve written assignments with comments from your instructor?
a. Discussion
b. My Grades area
c. Assignment Link
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 7
If you have a question about which courses you should register for next term, who should you contact?
a. Student Support Team
b. One of your current instructors
c. Your Academic Advisor
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 8
As long as you save your work to your home computer’s hard drive, you are safe.
True
False
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 9
When sending and e-mail to your Instructor or any Walden staff, your e-mail should:
a. Include color stationary as a background
b. USE ALL CAPITAL LETTERS SO THEY KNOW YOUR EMAIL IS IMPORTANT
c. Include your full legal name, your program or course, and your Walden ID Number
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 10
The online classroom area where you can post an assignment and have your classmates and instructor respond to your ideas is called:
a. My Grades area
b. Discussion
c. Assignment Link
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 11
Students can always edit their posting in Discussion.
True
False
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 12
Who should you contact with questions about online classroom technical concerns?
a. Your Instructor
b. Walden Academic Advisor
c. Student Support
d. Program Director
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 13
Since your online classroom could unexpectedly time out on occasion, what should you do before submitting a long Discussion posting?
a. Type and save the assignment as a word-processed document first.
b. Tell your instructor you are going to submit an assignment.
c. Create a new topic.
d. Call the Student Support Team for help.
1 points
Save Answer
QUESTION 14
Students should avoid referencing Wikipedia as a scholarly resource in their assignments.
True
False
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 15
Online students are expected to behave with academic integrity and honesty.
True
False
NURS6001 Week 1 Quiz0
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Nurs6003 19328713
/in Uncategorized /by developerStrategies to Promote Academic Integrity and Professional Ethics
I have analyzed the relationship between academic integrity and writing, as well as the relationship between professional practices and scholarly ethics. I have also identified strategies I intend to pursue to maintain integrity and ethics of my academic work while a student of the MSN program, as well as my professional work as a nurse throughout my career. The results of these efforts are shared below.
Directions: In the space below craft your analysis/writing sample, including Part 1 (The Connection Between Academic and Professional Integrity) and Part 2(Strategies for Maintaining Integrity of Work).
Part 1: Writing Sample: The Connection Between Academic and Professional Integrity In the space below write a 2- 3-paragraph analysis that includes the following: • Explanation for the relationship between academic integrity and writing• Explanation for the relationship between professional practices and scholarly ethics • Cite at least 2 resources that support your arguments, being sure to use proper APA formatting. • Use Grammarly and SafeAssign to improve the product.• Explain how Grammarly, Safe Assign, and paraphrasing contributes to academic integrity
PART 2: Strategies for Maintaining Integrity of Work Expand on your thoughts from Part 1 by: • Identifying and describing strategies you intend to pursue to maintain integrity and ethics of your 1) academic work while a student of the MSN program, and 2) professional work as a nurse throughout your career. Include a review of resources and approaches you propose to use as a student and a professional.
https://www.nursingworld.org/resources/
https://journal.alt.ac.uk/index.php/rlt/article/view/1648/pdf_13
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Nurs6003
/in Uncategorized /by developerTransition to graduate study of nursing
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Nurs6221 Sexual Harassment In The Workplace
/in Uncategorized /by developernurs 6221 sexual harassment in the workplace
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Nurs6221 Wk 4 Paper
/in Uncategorized /by developerSubmit a 3- to 5-page paper in which you do the following:
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Nurs6501 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
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Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:
a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred
Question 2
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?
a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption
Question 3
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:
a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.
Question 4
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery
Question 5
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.
Question 6
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Question 7
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
Question 16
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn
Question 17
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose
Question 18
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
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Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is …
NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017
Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting …
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Nurs6501 Week 9 Quiz Latest 2017 18751235
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Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
Question 2
A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond?
a. Aldosterone
b. Testosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Prolactin
Question 3
A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Endocytosis
Question 4
A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production.Which of the following would accompany this condition?
a. Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Increased anterior pituitary stimulation
c. Decreased T4
d. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Question 5
A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. Which of the following would the nurse expect following surgery?
a. Increased serum calcium
b. Decreased bone formation
c. Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
d. Increased calcitonin
Question 6
A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find?
a. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies
b. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones
d. Increased circulation of iodine
Question 7
A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis?
a. Fasting plasma glucose levels
b. Random serum glucose levels
c. Genetic testing
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements
Question 8
A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is a dysfunction in the:
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Pars intermedia
d. Pituitary stalk
Question 9
While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia, which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.
a. Neurogenic
b. Nephrogenic
c. Psychogenic
d. Allogenic
Question 10
When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
a. Pharmacologic
b. Permissive
c. Biphasic
d. Direct
Question 11
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?
a. Polyuria
b. Edema
c. Vomiting
d. Thirst
Question 12
An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
a. Growth hormone (GH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Epinephrine
Question 13
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hypokalemia
Question 14
A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body.What is the nurse’s best response? ADH is important in:
a. The body’s water balance and urine concentration
b. Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations
c. Follicular maturation
d. Regulation of metabolic processes
Question 15
A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
a. Renal toxicity
b. Episodes of hypoglycemia
c. Hypotension
d. Type 2 DM
Question 16
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
a. Melatonin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Somatostatin
Question 17
A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?
a. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
b. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. SIADH
Question 18
While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism.
a. High
b. Low
c. Steady
d. Variable
Question 19
If a patient’s posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?
a. PRF
b. ADH
c. ACTH
d. GH
Question 20
An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond?
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Cancer
c. Pregnancy
d. Heart failure
Question 21
What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma?
a. Coma
b. Visual disturbances
c. Confused states
d. Breathing abnormalities
Question 22
A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
a. Hypovolemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyponatremia
Question 23
A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the “flu” for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state?
a. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation.
b. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure.
c. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones.
d. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.
Question 24
A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find?
a. Decreased IGF-1
b. Hypotension
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. Height increases
Question 25
A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes?
a. Sodium, chloride, phosphate
b. Calcium, magnesium, potassium
c. Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride
d. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate
Question 26
A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?
a. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect
b. Obesity and lack of exercise
c. Immune destruction of the pancreas
d. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
Question 27
When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by:
a. Pituitary hyposecretion
b. Parathyroid adenoma
c. Parathyroid gland injury
d. Hypothalamic inactivity
Question 28
A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
a. Increased blood volume
b. Increased urine osmolality
c. Increased urine volume
d. Increased arterial vasoconstriction
Question 29
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient?
a. Corticosteroid B globulin
b. Sex hormone-binding globulin
c. Thyroid-binding globulin
d. Albumin
Question 30
A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
a. Dilutional hyponatremia
b. Dehydration from polyuria
c. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia
d. Metabolic acidosis
Question 31
A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for:
a. Negative feedback
b. Positive feedback
c. Down-regulation
d. Up-regulation
Question 32
A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:
a. A normal-sized thyroid
b. A small discrete thyroid nodule
c. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
Question 33
A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement?
a. Dopaminergic agonists
b. Calcium
c. Insulin
d. Radiation
Question 34
A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen.What is the nurse’s best response? If left untreated, the child would have:
a. Mental retardation and stunted growth
b. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer
c. Hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder
d. Liver, kidney, and pancreas failure
Question 35
Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is:
a. Decreased blood flow to the eye
b. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball
c. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells
d. Local lactic acidosis
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NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
…
Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
…
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Nurs6501 Week 9 Quiz Latest 2017
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NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
Question 2
A student asks the instructor which of the following is the most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid. How should the instructor respond?
a. Aldosterone
b. Testosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Prolactin
Question 3
A patient has researched lipid-soluble hormones on the Internet. Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane by:
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Endocytosis
Question 4
A 45-year-old female has elevated thyroxine production.Which of the following would accompany this condition?
a. Increased thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
b. Increased anterior pituitary stimulation
c. Decreased T4
d. Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Question 5
A 40-year-old male undergoes surgery for a PTH-secreting tumor in which the parathyroid is removed. Which of the following would the nurse expect following surgery?
a. Increased serum calcium
b. Decreased bone formation
c. Decreased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
d. Increased calcitonin
Question 6
A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests, which results would the nurse expect to find?
a. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies
b. Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones
d. Increased circulation of iodine
Question 7
A 12-year-old male is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. Which of the following tests should the nurse prepare the patient to best confirm the diagnosis?
a. Fasting plasma glucose levels
b. Random serum glucose levels
c. Genetic testing
d. Glycosylated hemoglobin measurements
Question 8
A 25-year-old male presents with fatigue, constipation, and sexual dysfunction. Tests reveal all pituitary hormones are normal and no masses are present. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of his symptoms is a dysfunction in the:
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Pars intermedia
d. Pituitary stalk
Question 9
While planning care for a patient from general anesthesia, which principle should the nurse remember? A side effect of some general anesthetic agents is _____ diabetes insipidus.
a. Neurogenic
b. Nephrogenic
c. Psychogenic
d. Allogenic
Question 10
When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
a. Pharmacologic
b. Permissive
c. Biphasic
d. Direct
Question 11
Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?
a. Polyuria
b. Edema
c. Vomiting
d. Thirst
Question 12
An endocrinologist isolated a new hormone and found it to be a water-soluble amine. Which of the following is most like this new hormone?
a. Growth hormone (GH)
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
c. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Epinephrine
Question 13
A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (lung infection) is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would be expected in this patient?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hypokalemia
Question 14
A patient wants to know why ADH is important in the body.What is the nurse’s best response? ADH is important in:
a. The body’s water balance and urine concentration
b. Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentrations
c. Follicular maturation
d. Regulation of metabolic processes
Question 15
A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
a. Renal toxicity
b. Episodes of hypoglycemia
c. Hypotension
d. Type 2 DM
Question 16
If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
a. Melatonin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Somatostatin
Question 17
A 50-year-old male patient presents with polyuria and extreme thirst. He was given exogenous ADH. For which of the following conditions would this treatment be effective?
a. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
b. Psychogenic diabetes insipidus
c. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
d. SIADH
Question 18
While planning care for a patient with hypothyroidism, which principle should the nurse remember? The basal metabolic rate is unusually _____ with hypothyroidism.
a. High
b. Low
c. Steady
d. Variable
Question 19
If a patient’s posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?
a. PRF
b. ADH
c. ACTH
d. GH
Question 20
An aide asks the nurse what is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. How should the nurse respond?
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Cancer
c. Pregnancy
d. Heart failure
Question 21
What common neurologic disturbances should the nurse assess for in a patient with a pituitary adenoma?
a. Coma
b. Visual disturbances
c. Confused states
d. Breathing abnormalities
Question 22
A 50-year-old female presents with lightheadedness and overall abnormal feelings. Hyperaldosteronism is diagnosed. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
a. Hypovolemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyponatremia
Question 23
A 19-year-old female with type 1 DM was admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 500 mg/dl (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial pH 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the “flu” for a week. Which of the following statements best explains her acidotic state?
a. Increased insulin levels promote protein breakdown and ketone formation.
b. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure.
c. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones.
d. Insulin deficiency promotes lipid metabolism and ketone formation.
Question 24
A 25-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting changes in facial features. CT scan reveals a mass on the anterior pituitary, and lab tests reveal severely elevated growth hormone (GH). Which of the following would the nurse also expect to find?
a. Decreased IGF-1
b. Hypotension
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. Height increases
Question 25
A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes?
a. Sodium, chloride, phosphate
b. Calcium, magnesium, potassium
c. Hydrogen, bicarbonate, chloride
d. Potassium, magnesium, phosphate
Question 26
A 12-year-old female is newly diagnosed with type 1 DM. When the parents ask what causes this, what is the nurse’s best response?
a. A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect
b. Obesity and lack of exercise
c. Immune destruction of the pancreas
d. Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
Question 27
When a patient wants to know what most commonly causes hypoparathyroidism, how should the nurse reply? It is most commonly caused by:
a. Pituitary hyposecretion
b. Parathyroid adenoma
c. Parathyroid gland injury
d. Hypothalamic inactivity
Question 28
A 50-year-old male patient is deficient in ADH production.Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to find?
a. Increased blood volume
b. Increased urine osmolality
c. Increased urine volume
d. Increased arterial vasoconstriction
Question 29
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with hypothyroidism.Synthesis of which of the following would decrease in this patient?
a. Corticosteroid B globulin
b. Sex hormone-binding globulin
c. Thyroid-binding globulin
d. Albumin
Question 30
A 22-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
a. Dilutional hyponatremia
b. Dehydration from polyuria
c. Cardiac arrest from hyperkalemia
d. Metabolic acidosis
Question 31
A patient has high levels of hormones. To adapt to the high hormone concentrations, the patient’s target cells have the capacity for:
a. Negative feedback
b. Positive feedback
c. Down-regulation
d. Up-regulation
Question 32
A 25-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Palpation of her neck would most likely reveal:
a. A normal-sized thyroid
b. A small discrete thyroid nodule
c. Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
Question 33
A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting visual disturbances. CT reveals a pituitary tumor and lab tests reveal elevated prolactin. He is diagnosed with prolactinoma. Which of the following treatments would the nurse help implement?
a. Dopaminergic agonists
b. Calcium
c. Insulin
d. Radiation
Question 34
A 3-year-old male was diagnosed with congenital hypothyroidism. The parents ask the nurse if left untreated what will happen.What is the nurse’s best response? If left untreated, the child would have:
a. Mental retardation and stunted growth
b. Increased risk of childhood thyroid cancer
c. Hyperactivity and attention deficit disorder
d. Liver, kidney, and pancreas failure
Question 35
Visual disturbances are a common occurrence in patients with untreated Graves disease. The endocrinologist explains to the patient that the main cause of these complications is:
a. Decreased blood flow to the eye
b. Orbital edema and protrusion of the eyeball
c. TSH neurotoxicity to retinal cells
d. Local lactic acidosis
Perfect answer to all questions
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NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. …
Walden NURS6501 Week 9 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1
A patient wants to know what can cause ACTH to be released.How should the nurse respond?
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
…
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nurs6521 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018
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Question
Week 6 quiz
Question 1
A 65-year-old woman has an advanced form of rheumatoid arthritis. Her treatment includes a regular dosage of methotrexate. The nurse will advise her to take which of the following vitamin supplements while taking the drug?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Question 2
To minimize the risk of adverse effects of glucagon when given to an unconscious diabetic patient, as the patient regains consciousness, the nurse should
A) administer calcium supplements.
B) position the patient in the side-lying position.
C) administer carbohydrates.
D) monitor for nausea and vomiting.
Question 3
A female patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus has been experiencing increasing neuropathic pain in recent months, a symptom that has not responded appreciably to conventional analgesics. The patient’s care provider has begun treatment with gabapentin (Neurontin). How is the addition of this drug likely to influence the management of the patient’s existing drug regimen?
A) The patient may be required to temporarily hold her other medications until a stable serum level of gabapentin is achieved.
B) It is unlikely to influence the patient’s other medications because gabapentin does not interact with other drugs.
C) Gabapentin is contraindicated with the use of exogenous insulin.
D) The patient’s medication-related risk for renal failure must be assessed prior to the use of gabapentin.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed. Before the drug therapy is started, the nurse will assess for which of the following?
A) History of taking anticoagulant drugs
B) Allergy to seafood
C) Hirsutism
D) The patient’s age
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a male patient who has a spinal cord injury due to a motorcycle accident. He has been taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for 2 weeks. The nurse will monitor which of the following?
A) Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
B) Urine specific gravity
C) Alanine aminotransferase and total bilirubin levels
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone levels
Question 6
A nurse is assessing a patient who has come to the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The patient states that he has a history of opioid addiction and does not want to take any drug that “puts me at risk of becoming physically dependent.” Which of the following medications would the nurse question, if ordered?
A) Methocarbamol (Robaxin)
B) Orphenadrine (Norflex)
C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
D) Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
Question 7
A 40-year-old woman with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia has been prescribed cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) as an adjunct to her existing drug regimen. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when updating the nursing care plan for this patient?
A) Risk for Injury related to CNS depressant effects
B) Diarrhea related to anticholinergic effects
C) Altered Nutrition, Less than Body Requirements, related to appetite suppression
D) Impaired Swallowing related to increased muscle tone
Question 8
A nurse is working with a 57-year-old man who is a former intravenous drug abuser. He has been prescribed a weekly dosage of methotrexate for his rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following will the nurse include in her teaching plan for this patient?
A) Avoid high-fat foods
B) Drink plenty of water every day
C) Take the tablets before bedtime
D) Avoid red meat
Question 9
Following an assessment by her primary care provider, a 70-year-old resident of an assisted living facility has begun taking daily oral doses of levothyroxine. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the nurse to withhold a scheduled dose of levothyroxine?
A) The resident has not eaten breakfast because of a recent loss of appetite
B) The resident’s apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm
C) The resident had a fall during the night while transferring from her bed to her bathroom
D) The resident received her annual influenza vaccination the previous day
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a 61-year-old man who has had a severe attack of gout while in the hospital for food poisoning. The nurse administers colchicine intravenously in order to
A) avoid aggravating the gastrointestinal tract.
B) ensure quick distribution of the drug.
C) prevent the risk of infection or bleeding.
D) minimize the risk of depressed bone marrow function.
Question 11
A patient receives 25 units of NPH insulin at 7.AM. At what time of day should the nurse advise the patient to be most alert for a potential hypoglycemic reaction?
A) After breakfast
B) Before lunch
C) Late afternoon
D) Bedtime
Question 12
A male patient is to begin glyburide (Diabeta) for type 2 diabetes. Before the drug therapy begins, a priority action by the nurse will be to assess the patient’s
A) blood pressure.
B) potassium level.
C) use of alcohol.
D) use of salt in his diet.
Question 13
A male patient with a diagnosis of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is in the clinic to discuss with the nurse the possibility of self-administration of glatiramer. During the patient education session for self-administration, the nurse will emphasize
A) the need to rotate the injection site of the drug.
B) the need to avoid crushing the tablet.
C) the need to place the tablet under the tongue.
D) the need to use only the thigh muscle for the drug injection site.
Question 14
A diabetic patient being treated for obesity tells the nurse that he is having adverse effects from his drug therapy. The patient has been taking dextroamphetamine for 2 weeks as adjunct therapy. Which of the following adverse effects would need the nurse’s immediate attention?
A) Decreased libido
B) Increased blood glucose
C) Dry eyes
D) Jittery feeling
Question 15
A patient with diabetes has had a cough for 1 week and has been prescribed a cough syrup (an expectorant). What special instructions should the nurse include in the patient teaching for this situation?
A) Wash hands before and after taking the medicine
B) Keep track of any gastrointestinal tract infections
C) Monitor glucose levels closely
D) Note the time the medicine is taken each day
Question 16
A 13-year-old patient has juvenile arthritis. He has recently had oral surgery and was told by the surgeon to take aspirin for the pain. The nurse will monitor for which of the following?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Agranulocytosis
Question 17
A nurse has been invited to speak to a support group for persons with movement disorders and their families. Which of the following statements by the nurse addresses the chronic nature of these diseases and the relevant drug therapies?
A) “Drug therapy can consist of one or more drugs to eliminate the symptoms of these diseases.”
B) “Drugs do not cure these disorders; they instead enhance quality of life.”
C) “Persons of all cultures are treated similarly and respond in similar ways to treatment.”
D) “Drugs used to treat these disorders always pose a risk of severe liver and kidney dysfunction.”
Question 18
A patient in need of myocardial infarction prophylaxis has been prescribed sulfinpyrazone for gout. Which of the following will the nurse monitor the patient most closely for?
A) Hypothermia
B) Hypotension
C) Renal dysfunction
D) Bleeding
Question 19
A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has multiple sclerosis. An expected outcome for the patient who is receiving glatiramer would be a decrease in
A) chest pain.
B) fatigue.
C) breathing difficulties.
D) heart palpitations.
Question 20
A 32-year-old female patient is taking tizanidine (Zanaflex) for spasticity related to her multiple sclerosis. The nurse will inform the patient and her husband that the adverse effect that poses the greatest safety risk to the patient is
A) constipation.
B) dry mouth.
C) fatigue.
D) hypotension.
Question 21
A 34-year-old male patient is prescribed methimazole (MMI).The nurse will advise him to report which of the following immediately?
A) Vertigo
B) Intolerance to cold
C) Loss of appetite
D) Epigastric distress
Question 22
A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 2 years ago and has experienced a recent exacerbation of her symptoms, including muscle spasticity. Consequently, she has been prescribed Dantrolene (Dantrium).In light of this new addition to her drug regimen, what teaching point should the woman’s nurse provide?
A) “This will likely relieve your muscle spasms but you’ll probably develop a certain amount of dependence on the drug over time.”
B) “We’ll need to closely monitor your blood sugar levels for the next week.”
C) “There’s a small risk that you might experience some hallucinations in the first few days that you begin taking this drug.”
D) “You might find that this drug exacerbates some of your muscle weakness while it relieves your spasticity.”
Question 23
A patient with type 1 diabetes has been admitted to the hospital for orthopedic surgery and the care team anticipates some disruptions to the patient’s blood glucose levels in the days following surgery. Which of the following insulin regimens is most likely to achieve adequate glycemic control?
A) Small doses of long-acting insulin administered four to five times daily
B) Doses of basal insulin twice daily with regular insulin before each meal
C) Large doses of rapid-acting insulin combined with long-acting insulin each morning and evening
D) Divided doses of intermediate-acting insulin every 2 hours, around the clock
Question 24
During long-term desmopressin therapy in a 48-year-old woman, it will be most important for the nurse to assess which of the following?
A) The patient’s environment
B) The patient’s diet
C) The condition of the patient’s skin
D) The condition of the patient’s nasal passages
Question 25
A 49-year-old woman has been diagnosed with myalgia. The physician has recommended aspirin. The patient is concerned that the aspirin will upset her stomach. The nurse will encourage the patient to
A) crush the tablet before swallowing.
B) swallow the tablet whole.
C) swallow the tablet with milk or food.
D) avoid drinking milk for 3 hours after swallowing the tablet.
Question 26
A nurse will instruct a patient taking allopurinol to take each dose
A) at night.
B) first thing in the morning.
C) after a meal.
D) before a meal.
Question 27
The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a new resident of a long-term care facility. The nurse notes that the resident takes allopurinol on a daily basis for the treatment of gout. What is the primary purpose of this drug?
A) To balance urate concentration and prevent gout attacks
B) To promote the remodeling of damaged synovium
C) To potentiate the metabolism of dietary purines
D) To achieve pain relief in joints affected by gout
Question 28
A nurse is teaching a patient about his newly prescribed drug, colchicine, for gout. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
A) Green beans
B) Shrimp
C) Eggs
D) Milk
Question 29
A nurse is instructing a patient who was recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about dantrolene (Dantrium). The patient is a 38-year-old-male and the foreman for a construction company. In order to minimize one important adverse effect of the drug, the nurse will give the patient which of the following instructions?
A) Eat a high-protein diet
B) Decrease the dosage if any adverse effect is experienced
C) Wear appropriate clothing and sunscreen whenever he is in direct sunlight
D) Have a complete blood cell count done weekly
Question 30
A 33-year-old man has developed acute gouty arthritis. He has been prescribed colchicine. When developing a care plan for this patient, which factor will be most important for the nurse to consider?
A) Dietary habits
B) Work environment
C) Typical daily fluid intake
D) Ethnicity
NURS6521 Week 6 Quiz latest 2018
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