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quickmaster (1)3.6 (5)ChatNR508WEEK 4 Midterm Exam Latest 2017
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Question 12 pts
Osteopenia is diagnosed in a 55-year-old woman who has not had a period in 15 months. She has a positive family history of breast cancer. The primary care NP should recommend:
testosterone therapy.
estrogen-only therapy.
nonhormonal drugs for osteoporosis.
estrogen-progesterone therapy for 1 to 2 years.
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Question 22 pts
A woman is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she continues to have severe morning sickness on a daily basis. The NP notes a weight loss of 1 pound from her previous visit 2 weeks prior. The NP should consult an obstetrician and prescribe:
aprepitant (Emend).
ondansetron (Zofran).
scopolamine transdermal.
prochlorperazine (Compazine).
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Question 32 pts
A 75-year-old patient who has cardiovascular disease reports insomnia and vomiting for several weeks. The primary care NP orders thyroid function tests. The tests show TSH is decreased and T4 is increased. The NP should consult with an endocrinologist and order:
thyrotropin.
methimazole.
levothyroxine.
propylthiouracil.
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Question 42 pts
A 55-year-old patient with no prior history of hypertension has a blood pressure greater than 140/90 on three separate occasions. The patient does not smoke, has a body mass index of 24, and exercises regularly. The patient has no known risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The primary care NP should:
prescribe a thiazide diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
perform a careful cardiovascular physical assessment.
counsel the patient about dietary and lifestyle changes.
order a urinalysis and creatinine clearance and begin therapy with a ?-blocker.
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Question 52 pts
A patient reports fatigue, weight loss, and dry skin. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) orders thyroid function tests. The patient’s thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is 40 microunits/mL, and T4 is 0.1 ng/mL. The NP should refer the patient to an endocrinologist and prescribe:
methimazole.
liothyronine.
levothyroxine.
propylthiouracil.
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Question 62 pts
When prescribing a medication for a chronic condition, the primary care NP should tell the patient:
to contact the pharmacy whenever refills are needed.
that it is necessary to return to the clinic for each monthly refill of the medication.
about the frequency of clinic visits necessary for the number of refills authorized.
to ask the pharmacist to supply several months’ worth of the medication at a time.
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Question 72 pts
A child who has congenital hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine 75 mcg/day. The child weighs 15 kg. The primary care NP sees the child for a 3-year-old check-up. The NP should consult with a pediatric endocrinologist to discuss:
increasing the dose to 90 mcg/day.
decreasing the dose to 30 mcg/day.
stopping the medication and checking TSH and T4 in 4 weeks.
discussing the need for lifetime replacement therapy with the child’s parents.
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Question 82 pts
A patient who has IBS experiences diarrhea, bloating, and pain but does not want to take medication. The primary care NP should recommend:
25 g of fiber each day.
avoiding gluten and lactose in the diet.
increasing water intake to eight to ten glasses per day.
beginning aerobic exercise, such as running, every day.
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Question 92 pts
A woman who uses a transdermal contraceptive calls the primary care NP to report that while dressing that morning she discovered that the patch had come off and she was unable to find the patch. The NP should tell her to apply a new patch and:
take one cycle of COCPs.
take a home pregnancy test.
use condoms for the next 7 days.
contact the clinic if she misses a period.
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Question 102 pts
A patient has been diagnosed with IBS and tells the primary care NP that symptoms of diarrhea and cramping are worsening. The patient asks about possible drug therapy to treat the symptoms. The NP should prescribe:
mesalamine (Asacol).
dicyclomine (Bentyl).
simethicone (Phazyme).
metoclopramide (Reglan).
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Question 112 pts
A patient wants to know why a cheaper version of a drug cannot be used when the primary care NP writes a prescription for a specific brand name of the drug and writes, “Dispense as Written.” The NP should explain that a different brand of this drug:
may cause different adverse effects.
does not necessarily have the same therapeutic effect.
is likely to be less safe than the brand specified in the prescription.
may vary in the amount of drug that reaches the site of action in the body.
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Question 122 pts
A patient comes to the clinic with a history of syncope and weakness for 2 to 3 days. The primary care NP notes thready, rapid pulses and 3-second capillary refill. An ECG reveals a heart rate of 198 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. The NP should:(PSVT)
administer intravenous fluids and obtain serum electrolytes.
administer amiodarone in the clinic and observe closely for response.
order digoxin and verapamil and ask the patient to return for a follow-up examination in 1 week.
send the patient to an emergency department for evaluation and treatment.
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Question 132 pts
An adolescent girl has chosen Depo-Provera as a contraceptive method and tells the primary care NP that she likes the fact that she won’t have to deal with pills or periods. The primary care NP should tell her that she:
should consider another form of contraception after 1 year.
may have irregular bleeding, especially in the first month or so.
will need to take calcium and vitamin D every day while using this method.
will have to take oral contraceptive pills in addition to Depo-Provera when she takes antibiotics.
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Question 142 pts
A patient who is taking nifedipine develops mild edema of both feet. The primary care NP should contact the patient’s cardiologist to discuss:
changing to amlodipine.
ordering renal function tests.
increasing the dose of nifedipine.
evaluation of left ventricular function.
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Question 152 pts
A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for prophylaxis of urinary tract infections tells the primary care NP that a sibling recently died from a sudden cardiac arrest, determined to be from long QT syndrome. The NP should:
schedule a treadmill stress test.
order genetic testing for this patient.
discontinue the trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
refer the patient to a cardiologist for further evaluation.
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Question 162 pts
A patient has three consecutive blood pressure readings of 140/95 mm Hg. The patient’s body mass index is 24. A fasting plasma glucose is 100 mg/dL. Creatinine clearance and cholesterol tests are normal. The primary care NP should order:
a ?-blocker.
an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
a thiazide diuretic.
dietary and lifestyle changes.
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Question 172 pts
A male patient tells the primary care NP he is experiencing decreased libido, lack of energy, and poor concentration. The NP performs an examination and notes increased body fat and gynecomastia. A serum testosterone level is 225 ng/dL. The NP’s next action should be to:
order LH and FSH levels.
order a serum prolactin level.
prescribe testosterone replacement.
obtain a morning serum testosterone level.
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Question 182 pts
A woman has severe IBS and takes hyoscyamine sulfate (Levsin), simethicone (Phazyme), and a TCA. She reports having continued severe diarrhea. The primary care NP should:
order diphenoxylate (Lomotil).
prescribe alosetron after ruling out pregnancy.
refer her to a gastroenterologist for endoscopy.
increase the fiber in her diet to 30 g per day.
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Question 192 pts
A patient is given a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. A laboratory test confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. The primary care NP orders a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) before meals twice daily, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin. After 14 days of treatment, H. pyloriis still present. The NP should order:
continuation of the PPI for 4 to 8 weeks.
a PPI, amoxicillin, and metronidazole for 14 days.
a PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 more days.
a PPI, bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and metronidazole.
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Question 202 pts
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
inhibitor.
substrate.
inducer.
metabolizer.
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Question 212 pts
The primary care NP sees a new patient who has diabetes and hypertension and has been taking a thiazide diuretic for 6 months. The patient’s blood pressure at the beginning of treatment was 150/95 mm Hg. The blood pressure today is 138/85 mm Hg. The NP should:
order a b-blocker.
add an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
continue the current drug regimen.
change to an aldosterone antagonist medication.
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Question 222 pts
A patient has been taking antibiotics to treat recurrent pneumonia. The patient is in the clinic after having diarrhea for 5 days with six to seven liquid stools each day. The primary care NP should:
obtain a stool specimen and order vancomycin.
order testing for Clostridium difficile and consider metronidazole therapy.
prescribe diphenoxylate (Lomotil) to provide symptomatic relief.
reassure the patient that diarrhea is a common side effect of antibiotic therapy.
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Question 232 pts
The primary care NP has referred a child who has significant gastrointestinal reflux disease to a specialist for consideration for a fundoplication and gastrostomy tube placement. The child’s weight is 80% of what is recommended for age, and a recent swallow study revealed significant risk for aspiration. The child’s parents do not want the procedure. The NP should:
compromise with the parents and order a nasogastric tube for feedings.
initiate a discussion with the parents about the potential outcomes of each possible action.
refer the family to a case manager who can help guide the parents to the best decision.
understand that the child’s parents have a right to make choices that override those of the medical team.
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Question 242 pts
The primary care NP prescribes an extended-cycle monophasic pill regimen for a young woman who reports having multiple partners. Which statement by the patient indicates she understands the regimen?
“I have to take a pill only every 3 months.”
“I should expect to have only four periods each year.”
“I will need to use condoms for only 7 more days.”
“This type of pill has fewer side effects than other types.”
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Question 252 pts
The primary care NP prescribes an inhaled corticosteroid for a patient who has asthma. The third-party payer for this patient denies coverage for the brand that comes in the specific strength the NP prescribes. The NP should:
provide pharmaceutical company samples of the medication for the patient.
inform the patient that the drug must be paid for out of pocket because it is not covered.
order the closest formulary-approved approximation of the drug and monitor effectiveness.
write a letter of medical necessity to the insurer to explain the need for this particular medication.
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Question 262 pts
A patient with primary hypercholesterolemia is taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. All of the patient’s baseline LFTs were normal. At a 6-month follow-up visit, the patient reports occasional headache. A lipid profile reveals a decrease of 20% in the patient’s LDL cholesterol. The NP should:
order LFTs.
order CK-MM tests.
consider decreasing the dose of the medication.
reassure the patient that this side effect is common.
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Question 272 pts
A patient who takes a thiazide diuretic will begin taking an ACE inhibitor. The primary care NP should counsel the patient to:
report wheezing and shortness of breath, which may occur with these drugs.
take care when getting out of bed or a chair after the first dose of the ACE inhibitor.
discuss taking an increased dose of the thiazide diuretic with the cardiologist.
minimize fluid intake for several days when beginning therapy with the ACE inhibitor.
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Question 282 pts
A thin 52-year-old woman who has recently had a hysterectomy tells the primary care NP she is having frequent hot flashes and vaginal dryness.A recent bone density study shows early osteopenia. The woman’s mother had CHD. She has no family history of breast cancer. The NP should prescribe:
estrogen-only HT now.
estrogen-only HT in 5 years.
estrogen-progesterone HT now.
estrogen-progesterone HT in 5 years.
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Question 292 pts
A patient who will begin using nitroglycerin for angina asks the primary care NP how the medication works to relieve pain. The NP should tell the patient that nitroglycerin acts to:
dissolve atheromatous lesions.
relax vascular smooth muscle.
prevent catecholamine release.
reduce C-reactive protein levels.
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Question 302 pts
A patient is in the clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting that has lasted 2 to 3 days. The patient has dry oral mucous membranes, a blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, a pulse of 96 beats per minute, and a temperature of 38.8° C. The primary care NP notes a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. The NP should:
obtain a complete blood count and serum electrolytes.
prescribe a rectal antiemetic medication.
admit to the hospital for intravenous (IV) rehydration.
encourage the patient to take small, frequent sips of Gatorade.
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Question 312 pts
A patient who has severe arthritis and who takes nonsteroidalantiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) daily develops a duodenal ulcer. The patient has tried a cyclooxygenase-2 selective NSAID in the past and states that it is not as effective as the current NSAID. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should:
prescribe cimetidine (Tagamet).
prescribe omeprazole (Prilosec).
teach the patient about a bland diet.
change the NSAID to a corticosteroid.
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Question 322 pts
A patient who has stable angina and uses sublingual nitroglycerin tablets is in the clinic and begins having chest pain. The primary care NP administers a nitroglycerin tablet and instructs the patient to lie down. The NP’s next action should be to:
obtain an electrocardiogram.
administer oxygen at 2 L/minute.
give 325 mg of chewable aspirin.
call EMS.
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Question 332 pts
A primary care NP sees a patient who is being treated for heart failure with digoxin, a loop diuretic, and an ACE inhibitor. The patient reports having nausea. The NP notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. The NP should:
decrease the dose of the diuretic to prevent further dehydration.
obtain a serum potassium level to assess for hyperkalemia.
hold the ACE inhibitor until the patient’s blood pressure stabilizes.
obtain a digoxin level before the patient takes the next dose of digoxin.
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Question 342 pts
A patient who is taking an oral anticoagulant is in the clinic in the late afternoon and reports having missed the morning dose of the medication because the prescription was not refilled. The primary care NP should counsel this patient to:
avoid foods that are high in vitamin K for several days.
take a double dose of the medication the next morning.
refill the prescription and take today’s dose immediately.
skip today’s dose and resume a regular dosing schedule in the morning.
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Question 352 pts
A primary care NP has prescribed phentermine for a patient who is obese. The patient loses 10 lb in the first month but reports that the drug does not seem to be suppressing appetite as much as before. The NP should:
discontinue the phentermine.
increase the dose of phentermine.
continue the phentermine at the same dose.
change to a combination of phentermine and topiramate.
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Question 362 pts
A 45-year-old patient who has a positive family history but no personal history of coronary artery disease is seen by the primary care NP for a physical examination. The patient has a body mass index of 27 and a blood pressure of 130/78 mm Hg. Laboratory tests reveal low-density lipoprotein, 110 mg/dL; high-density lipoprotein, 70 mg/dL; and triglycerides, 120 mg/dL. The patient does not smoke but has a sedentary lifestyle. The NP should recommend:
30 minutes of aerobic exercise daily.
taking 81 to 325 mg of aspirin daily.
beginning therapy with a statin medication.
starting a thiazide diuretic to treat hypertension.
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Question 372 pts
A patient has heart failure. A recent echocardiogram reveals decreased compliance of the left ventricle and poor ventricular filling. The patient takes low-dose furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. The primary care NP sees the patient for a routine physical examination and notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. The NP should:
order serum electrolytes.
obtain renal function tests.
consider prescribing a ?-blocker.
call the patient’s cardiologist to discuss adding digoxin to the patient’s regimen.
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Question 382 pts
A patient takes an antispasmodic and an occasional antidiarrheal medication to treat IBS. The patient comes to the clinic and reports having dry mouth, difficulty urinating, and more frequent constipation. The primary care NP notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute. The NP should:
prescribe a TCA.
discontinue the antidiarrheal medication.
encourage the patient to increase water intake.
lower the dose of the antispasmodic medication.
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Question 392 pts
A patient who has had four to five liquid stools per day for 4 days is seen by the primary care NP. The patient asks about medications to stop the diarrhea. The NP tells the patient that antidiarrheal medications are:
not curative and may prolong the illness.
useful in cases of acute infection with elevated temperature.
most beneficial when symptoms persist longer than 2 weeks.
useful when other symptoms, such as hematochezia, develop.
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Question 402 pts
A patient who has angina is taking nitroglycerin and long-acting nifedipine. The primary care NP notes a persistent blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg at several follow-up visits. The patient reports lightheadedness associated with standing up. The NP should consult with the patient’s cardiologist about changing the medication to:
amlodipine (Norvasc).
isradipine (DynaCirc).
verapamil HCl (Calan).
short-acting nifedipine (Procardia).
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Question 412 pts
A patient who has been taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily for 6 months reports that it is not working as well as it did initially. The primary care NP should:
recommend a reduced potassium intake.
increase the dose of digoxin to 0.5 mg daily.
hold the next dose of digoxin and obtain a serum digoxin level.
contact the patient’s pharmacy to ask if generic digoxin was dispensed.
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Question 422 pts
A patient is taking spironolactone and comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and tingling of the hands and feet. The primary care NP notes a heart rate of 62 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/58 mm Hg. The NP should:
obtain a serum drug level.
order an electrocardiogram (ECG) and serum electrolytes.
change the medication to a thiazide diuretic.
question the patient about potassium intake.
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Question 432 pts
The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) sees a patient in the clinic who has a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg. The patient’s laboratory tests reveal high-density lipoprotein, 35 mg/dL; triglycerides, 120 mg/dL; and fasting plasma glucose, 100 mg/dL. The NP calculates a body mass index of 29. The patient has a positive family history for cardiovascular disease. The NP should:
prescribe a thiazide diuretic.
consider treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
reassure the patient that these findings are normal.
counsel the patient about dietary and lifestyle changes.
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Question 442 pts
A patient who has primary hyperlipidemia and who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) continues to have LDL cholesterol of 140 mg/dL after 3 months of therapy. The primary care NP increases the dose from 10 mg daily to 20 mg daily. The patient reports headache and dizziness a few weeks after the dose increase. The NP should:
change the atorvastatin dose to 15 mg twice daily.
change the patient’s medication to cholestyramine (Questran).
add ezetimibe (Zetia) and lower the atorvastatin to 10 mg daily.
recommend supplements of omega-3 along with the atorvastatin.
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Question 452 pts
The primary care NP is seeing a patient for a hospital follow-up after the patient has had a first myocardial infarction. The patient has a list of the prescribed medications and tells the NP that “no one explained anything about them.” The NP’s initial response should be to:
ask the patient to describe the medication regimen.
ask the patient to make a list of questions about the medications.
determine what the patient understands about coronary artery disease.
give the patient information about drug effects and any adverse reactions.
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Question 462 pts ????
A primary care NP sees a 5-year-old child who is morbidly obese. The child has an elevated hemoglobin A1c and increased lipid levels. Both of the child’s parents are overweight but not obese, and they tell the NP that they see nothing wrong with their child. They both state that it is difficult to refuse their child’s requests for soda or ice cream. The NP should:
suggest that they give the child diet soda and low-fat frozen yogurt.
understand and respect the parents’ beliefs about their child’s self-image.
initiate a dialogue with the parents about the implications of the child’s laboratory values.
suggest family counseling to explore ways to improve parenting skills and limits.
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Question 472 pts
A primary care NP is developing a handout to give to patients who will begin self-administering insulin. When developing this handout, the NP should:
provide detailed descriptions of each step in the process of injecting insulin.
use correct medical terminology when describing insulin self-administration.
provide as much factual information as possible about insulin administration.
address one or two educational objectives that describe what the patient will learn.
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Question 482 pts
A patient reports having occasional acute constipation with large, hard stools and pain and asks the primary care NP about medication to treat this condition. The NP learns that the patient drinks 1500 mL of water daily; eats fruits, vegetables, and bran; and exercises regularly. The NP should recommend:
a daily bulk laxative.
long-term docusate sodium.
a saline laxative as needed.
glycerin suppositories as needed.
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Question 492 pts
A patient who has heart failure has been treated with furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. The patient’s cardiologist has added digoxin to the patient’s medication regimen. The primary care NP who cares for this patient should expect to monitor:
serum electrolytes.
blood glucose levels.
serum thyroid levels.
complete blood counts (CBCs).
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Question 502 pts
A 55-year-old woman has not had menstrual periods for 5 years and tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she is having increasingly frequent vasomotor symptoms. She has no family history or risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) or breast cancer but is concerned about these side effects of hormone therapy (HT). The NP should:
tell her that starting HT now may reduce her risk of breast cancer.
advise a short course of HT now that may decrease her risk for CHD.
tell her that HT will not help control her symptoms during postmenopause.
recommend herbal supplements for her symptoms to avoid HT side effects.
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Question 512 pts
A primary care NP is performing a previsit health history on a new patient. The patient reports taking vitamins every day. The NP should:
ask the patient to bring all vitamin bottles to the clinic appointment.
recommend natural vitamin products over synthetic vitamin products.
reassure the patient that vitamins that are high in folic acid are safe to take.
tell the patient that some vitamins, such as vitamin C, are safe in large doses.
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Question 522 pts
An 80-year-old patient asks a primary care NP about OTC antacids for occasional heartburn. The NP notes that the patient has a normal complete blood count and normal electrolytes and a slight elevation in creatinine levels. The NP should recommend:
calcium carbonate (Tums).
aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel).
sodium bicarbonate (Alka-Seltzer).
magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia).
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Question 532 pts
A 50-year-old woman with a family history of CHD is experiencing occasional hot flashes and is having periods every 3 to 4 months. She asks the primary care NP about HT to relieve her symptoms. The NP should:
prescribe estrogen-only therapy.
initiate oral contraceptive pills now.
discuss using bioidentical HT.
plan to use estrogen-progesterone therapy when menopause begins.
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Question 542 pts
A patient who has breast cancer has been taking toremifene for 2 weeks. She tells her primary care NP that she thinks her tumor has grown larger. The NP should:
schedule her for a breast ultrasound.
reassure her that this is common and will subside.
tell her she may need an increased dose of this medication.
contact her oncologist to discuss adding another medication.
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Question 552 pts
A patient reports having episodes of dizziness, nausea, and lightheadedness and describes a sensation of the room spinning when these occur.The primary care NP will refer the patient to a specialist who, after diagnostic testing, is likely to prescribe:
mecliz
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Nr507 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
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Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
Clinical manifestations of fibromyalgia include
hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally.
exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps.
fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles.
burning or gnawing pain at tender points and profound fatigue.
Question 2
0 / 2 pts
What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?
Bursitis
Lateral epicondylitis
Lateral tendinitis
Medial tendinitis
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
_____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.
Nonunion
Dislocation
Subluxation
Malunion
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8+ T cells are presented with which of the following antigens?
Tendons
Synovium
Cartilage
Ligaments
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
Overproduction of uric acid
Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
Reduced excretion of purines
Overproduction of proteoglycans
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
_____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.
Paget disease
Fibromyalgia
Ankylosing spondylitis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by
lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade.
smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia.
paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply.
release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells.
Question 8
0 / 2 pts
An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.
D
B12
B6
C
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?
Syntrophin
Dystrophin
Laminin
Troponin
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Ewing sarcoma arises from
embryonal osteocytes.
metadiaphysis of long bones.
bone-producing mesenchymal cells.
bone marrow.
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Osteochondrosis is caused by a(n)
bacterial infection of the bone.
nutritional deficiency of calcium and phosphorus.
imbalance between calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
vascular impairment and trauma to bone.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with
TP53.
myc.
TSC2.
src.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving
elbows and upper and lower arms and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs.
knees, inner thighs, and groin and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs.
knees, inner thighs, and groin that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.
elbows and upper and lower arms that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s
father.
mother.
affected parent.
maternal lineage.
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?
Creatine
Blood urea nitrogen
Albumin
Creatinine
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen.
T lymphocytes
immune complexes
complement
IgE
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?
Fibroblasts
Macrophages
Histiocytes
Mast cells
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.
reticular fibers
collagen
elastin
stroma
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
_____ of the epidermis initiate immune responses and provide defense against environmental antigens.
Melanocytes
Keratinocytes
Merkel cells
Langerhans cells
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by
Candida albicans.
Streptococcus.
Staphylococcus.
herpesvirus.
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age?
Cavernous hemangioma
Port-wine (nevus flammeus) stain
Strawberry hemangioma
Cutaneous hemangioma
Question 23
0 / 2 pts
Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?
Varicella
Rubeola
Roseola
Rubella
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?
High fever
Itching
Papular rash
Vesicles that burst and form crusts
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?
Rubeola
Scabies
Pediculosis
Tinea capitis
NR507 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
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Nr507 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
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Question 1
2 / 2 pts
Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?
Stage 4
Stage 2
Stage 1
Stage 3
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA) ceases and rhythmic breathing is resumed when levels of arterial
carbon dioxide become normal.
oxygen increase.
oxygen decrease.
carbon dioxide increase.
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Uncal herniation occurs when
the hippocampal gyrus shifts from the middle fossa through the tentorial notch into the posterior fossa.
the diencephalon shifts from the middle fossa straight downward through the tentorial notch into the posterior fossa.
the cingulate gyrus shifts under the falx cerebri.
a cerebellar tonsil shifts through the foramen magnum.
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?
Occipital
Limbic
Parietal
Prefrontal
Question 5
0 / 2 pts
The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is
computed tomography (CT) scan.
cerebrospinal fluid analysis.
health history.
skull x-ray films.
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the
brain tissue.
meninges.
neurons.
ventricles.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
Which is a characteristic of brainstem death?
Comatose
Vegetative state
Apnea
Locked-in syndrome
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
Which disease process is infratentorial?
Cerebellar neoplasm
Parkinson disease
Encephalitis
Cerebral neoplasm
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?
Lacunar
Hemorrhagic
Embolic
Thrombotic
Question 10
0 / 2 pts
Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?
Cervical and thoracic
Lumbar and sacral
Cervical and lumbar
Thoracic and lumbar
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
A right hemisphere embolic cerebrovascular accident has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. The vessel most likely affected by the emboli is the right _____ artery.
middle cerebral
posterior cerebral
vertebral
anterior cerebral
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
In children most intracranial tumors are located
laterally.
below the tentorium cerebelli.
above the tentorium cerebelli.
posterolaterally.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
Hypertensive crisis and agitation
Orthostatic hypotension and weight gain
Dry mouth and sexual dysfunction
Sleep disturbances and nausea
Question 14
0 / 2 pts
Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Serotonin
Question 15
0 / 2 pts
Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?
Hyponatremia
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Benign febrile seizures are characterized by
onset after the fifth year of life.
respiratory or ear infections.
lasting 30 minutes or more.
a temperature less than 39° C.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include
exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, clonus, and rigidity of extremities.
scoliosis, contractures, and stiffness of trunk muscles.
increased muscle tone and prolonged primitive reflexes.
jerky uncontrolled and abrupt fine musculoskeletal movements.
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.
α-fetoprotein (AFP)
total protein
culture
C-reactive protein
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
Symptoms characteristic of bulimia nervosa include:
a perception that the body is fat when it is actually underweight.
recurrent episodes of binge eating with fears of not being able to stop eating.
absence of three consecutive menstrual periods.
a fear of becoming obese despite progressive weight loss.
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by
the loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus.
twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle causing occlusion of the blood supply.
forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to intestinal omentum and cause obstruction.
telescoping of part of the intestine into another usually causing strangulation of the blood supply.
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are a result of
a rapid gastric emptying and creation of a high osmotic gradient in the small intestine that causes a sudden shift of fluid from the blood vessels to the intestinal lumen.
hemorrhage postoperatively in which a large volume of blood is lost, causing hypotension with compensatory tachycardia.
an anaphylactic reaction in which chemical mediators, such as histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, relax vascular smooth muscles causing shock.
a concentrated bolus that moves from the stomach into the small intestine, which causes hyperglycemia, resulting in polyuria and eventually hypovolemic shock.
Question 22
0 / 2 pts
Hepatitis _____ in children is primarily associated with blood transfusions.
D
B
A
C
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
_____ diarrhea results from lactose intolerance.
Motility
Secretory
Small volume
Osmotic
Question 24
0 / 2 pts
A person with cystic fibrosis has an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency because
the pancreas has a volvulus at the ampulla of Vater.
of the impaired blood supply to the pancreas causing ischemia.
genetically the pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes.
the pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children than in adults because
children have diarrhea more often than do adults.
children have a higher fluid volume intake.
less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
fluid reserves are smaller in children.
c
NR507 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
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Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
Herpes simplex virus type 6
Herpes simplex virus type 2
Human papillomavirus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 3
0 / 2 pts
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
Infectivity
Toxigenicity
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults.
The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
6 to 8 weeks
8 to 12 months
Until the iron level is normal
The rest of one’s life
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
Nasal turbinates
Alveolar macrophages
Cilia
Irritant receptors on the nares
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole.
Pressure; force
Volume; strength
Viscosity; force
Viscosity; strength
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
2 years
1 year
10 months
5 months
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
Blood vessels
Epithelial cells
Connective tissue
Glandular tissue
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
Increasing rate and depth of breathing
Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Myelomeningocele
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypercalcemia
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?
1 to 2
6 to 14
18 to 20
24 to 36
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Erythrocytes
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Where are alveolar macrophages found?
Skin
Breasts
Gastrointestinal tract
Lungs
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
Decreased flow resistance
Fewer alveoli
Stiffening of the chest wall
Improved elastic recoil
Question 19
0 / 2 pts
An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
Intermittent murmur
Lack of symptoms
Need for surgical repair
Triad of congenital defects
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
V
VIII
IX
X
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
Hemolytic shock
Anaphylaxis
Necrotizing vasculitis
Systemic erythematosus
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
Anencephaly
Myelodysplasia
Cranial meningocele
Hydrocephaly
Question 24
0 / 2 pts
At birth, which statement is true?
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
Nausea
Fatigue
Hair loss
Weight loss
Question 26
0 / 2 pts
The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they:
Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse.
Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse.
Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
Question 27
0 / 2 pts
Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
Heat cramps
Heat stroke
Malignant hyperthermia
Heat exhaustion
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system?
Central
Parasympathetic
Sympathetic
Somatic
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
Idiopathic
Incomplete
Pathologic
Greenstick
Question 30
0 / 2 pts
What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Salpingitis
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
Parietal lobe
Limbic system
Temporal lobe
Hypothalamus
.
Question 32
0 / 2 pts
What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
Enhancement of the motility of sperm
Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria
Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse
Question 33
0 / 2 pts
People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition?
Renal calculi
Joint trauma
Anemia
Hearing loss
Question 34
0 / 2 pts
The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
Fracture
Strain
Disunion
Sprain
Question 35
0 / 2 pts
Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?
Genetic
Empirical
Relative
Modifiable
Question 36
0 / 2 pts
Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
Twofold
Threefold
Fourfold
Tenfold
Question 37
2 / 2 pts
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
Reduced excretion of purines
Overproduction of uric acid
Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
Overproduction of proteoglycans
Question 38
0 / 2 pts
It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):
Is preceded by a viral illness.
Involves a deficit in acetylcholine.
Results in asymmetric paralysis.
Is an outcome of HIV.
Question 39
2 / 2 pts
The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Rickets
Osteochondrosis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Question 40
2 / 2 pts
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
Increased consumption of dairy produces
Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C
Decreased consumption of foods high in fat
Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring
Question 41
2 / 2 pts
The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?
Night terrors
Insomnia
Somnambulism
Enuresis
Question 42
2 / 2 pts
Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Question 43
0 / 2 pts
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
Sharpey fibers
Collagen fibers
Glycoproteins
Elastin fibers
Question 44
0 / 2 pts
Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
Parietal
Chief
G
H
Question 45
2 / 2 pts
Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Folic acid
Question 46
2 / 2 pts
What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Breast enlargement
Growth of pubic hair
Menstruation
Vaginal discharge
Question 47
2 / 2 pts
Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure?
Eyelids
Sebaceous glands
Meibomian glands
Conjunctiva
Question 48
2 / 2 pts
What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
Down
Cri du chat
Turner
Klinefelter
Question 49
2 / 2 pts
A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
3
6
9
12
Question 50
0 / 2 pts
Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Question 51
0 / 2 pts
Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
Question 52
0 / 2 pts
Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
Question 53
0 / 2 pts
How can glaucoma cause blindness?
Infection of the cornea
Pressure on the optic nerve
Opacity of the lens
Obstruction of the venous return from the retina
Question 54
0 / 2 pts
Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Frontal lobe
Basal ganglia
Question 55
0 / 2 pts
Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
GCT
Pattern theory
Specificity theory
Neuromatrix theory
Question 56
0 / 2 pts
Where is oxytocin synthesized?
Hypothalamus
Paraventricular nuclei
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Question 57
0 / 2 pts
An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
C
B12
B6
D
Question 58
2 / 2 pts
What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?
Hypospadias
Epispadias
Hyperspadias
Chordee
Question 59
2 / 2 pts
The most critical aspect in ly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
Computed tomographic (CT) scan
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Skull x-ray studies
Health history
Question 60
0 / 2 pts
Transcription is best defined as a process by which:
DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA).
RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.
RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence.
Question 61
0 / 2 pts
Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday
A depressed Hispanic woman
An individual on the second day after hip replacement
A man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Question 62
2 / 2 pts
Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
Inhibin
Leptin
Activin
Follistatin
Question 63
0 / 2 pts
Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance?
Secretory
Motility
Osmotic
Small volume
Question 64
2 / 2 pts
An amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women who:
Have a history of chronic illness
Have a family history of genetic disorders
Have experienced in vitro fertilization
Had a late menarche
Question 65
2 / 2 pts
Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
Slow contraction speed
Fast conduction velocities
Profuse capillary supply
Oxidative metabolism
Question 66
2 / 2 pts
The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 67
2 / 2 pts
Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
Optic (CN I)
Abducens (CN VI)
Oculomotor (CN III)
Trochlear (CN IV)
Question 68
0 / 2 pts
Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
Cortisol
Oxytocin
Epinephrine
Growth hormone
Question 69
2 / 2 pts
What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Periorbital edema
Scrotal or labial edema
Frothy urine
Ascites
Question 70
2 / 2 pts
The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
Ovarian
Lung
Uterine
Pancreatic
Question 71
0 / 2 pts
The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
Incidence
Prevalence
Ratio
Risk
Question 72
2 / 2 pts
When a woman’s uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate?
0
1
2
3
Question 73
2 / 2 pts
What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
Tolerance
Perception
Threshold
Dominance
Question 74
2 / 2 pts
Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
Premenstrual syndrome
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Primary dysmenorrhea
Question 75
0 / 2 pts
What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
Agnosia
Aphasia
Akinesia
Dysphasia
NR507 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2017
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NR508WEEK 4 Midterm Exam Latest 2017
Question
Question 12 pts
Osteopenia is diagnosed in a 55-year-old woman who has not had a period in 15 months. She has a positive family history of breast cancer. The primary care NP …
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Question
Question 12 pts
Osteopenia is diagnosed in a 55-year-old woman who has not had a period in 15 months. She has a positive family history of breast cancer. The primary care NP should recommend:
testosterone therapy.
estrogen-only therapy.
nonhormonal drugs for osteoporosis.
estrogen-progesterone therapy for 1 to 2 years.
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Question 22 pts
A woman is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she continues to have severe morning sickness on a daily basis. The NP notes a weight loss of 1 pound from her previous visit 2 weeks prior. The NP should consult an obstetrician and prescribe:
aprepitant (Emend).
ondansetron (Zofran).
scopolamine transdermal.
prochlorperazine (Compazine).
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Question 32 pts
A 75-year-old patient who has cardiovascular disease reports insomnia and vomiting for several weeks. The primary care NP orders thyroid function tests. The tests show TSH is decreased and T4 is increased. The NP should consult with an endocrinologist and order:
thyrotropin.
methimazole.
levothyroxine.
propylthiouracil.
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Question 42 pts
A 55-year-old patient with no prior history of hypertension has a blood pressure greater than 140/90 on three separate occasions. The patient does not smoke, has a body mass index of 24, and exercises regularly. The patient has no known risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The primary care NP should:
prescribe a thiazide diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
perform a careful cardiovascular physical assessment.
counsel the patient about dietary and lifestyle changes.
order a urinalysis and creatinine clearance and begin therapy with a ?-blocker.
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Question 52 pts
A patient reports fatigue, weight loss, and dry skin. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) orders thyroid function tests. The patient’s thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is 40 microunits/mL, and T4 is 0.1 ng/mL. The NP should refer the patient to an endocrinologist and prescribe:
methimazole.
liothyronine.
levothyroxine.
propylthiouracil.
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Question 62 pts
When prescribing a medication for a chronic condition, the primary care NP should tell the patient:
to contact the pharmacy whenever refills are needed.
that it is necessary to return to the clinic for each monthly refill of the medication.
about the frequency of clinic visits necessary for the number of refills authorized.
to ask the pharmacist to supply several months’ worth of the medication at a time.
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Question 72 pts
A child who has congenital hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine 75 mcg/day. The child weighs 15 kg. The primary care NP sees the child for a 3-year-old check-up. The NP should consult with a pediatric endocrinologist to discuss:
increasing the dose to 90 mcg/day.
decreasing the dose to 30 mcg/day.
stopping the medication and checking TSH and T4 in 4 weeks.
discussing the need for lifetime replacement therapy with the child’s parents.
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Question 82 pts
A patient who has IBS experiences diarrhea, bloating, and pain but does not want to take medication. The primary care NP should recommend:
25 g of fiber each day.
avoiding gluten and lactose in the diet.
increasing water intake to eight to ten glasses per day.
beginning aerobic exercise, such as running, every day.
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Question 92 pts
A woman who uses a transdermal contraceptive calls the primary care NP to report that while dressing that morning she discovered that the patch had come off and she was unable to find the patch. The NP should tell her to apply a new patch and:
take one cycle of COCPs.
take a home pregnancy test.
use condoms for the next 7 days.
contact the clinic if she misses a period.
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Question 102 pts
A patient has been diagnosed with IBS and tells the primary care NP that symptoms of diarrhea and cramping are worsening. The patient asks about possible drug therapy to treat the symptoms. The NP should prescribe:
mesalamine (Asacol).
dicyclomine (Bentyl).
simethicone (Phazyme).
metoclopramide (Reglan).
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Question 112 pts
A patient wants to know why a cheaper version of a drug cannot be used when the primary care NP writes a prescription for a specific brand name of the drug and writes, “Dispense as Written.” The NP should explain that a different brand of this drug:
may cause different adverse effects.
does not necessarily have the same therapeutic effect.
is likely to be less safe than the brand specified in the prescription.
may vary in the amount of drug that reaches the site of action in the body.
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Question 122 pts
A patient comes to the clinic with a history of syncope and weakness for 2 to 3 days. The primary care NP notes thready, rapid pulses and 3-second capillary refill. An ECG reveals a heart rate of 198 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. The NP should:(PSVT)
administer intravenous fluids and obtain serum electrolytes.
administer amiodarone in the clinic and observe closely for response.
order digoxin and verapamil and ask the patient to return for a follow-up examination in 1 week.
send the patient to an emergency department for evaluation and treatment.
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Question 132 pts
An adolescent girl has chosen Depo-Provera as a contraceptive method and tells the primary care NP that she likes the fact that she won’t have to deal with pills or periods. The primary care NP should tell her that she:
should consider another form of contraception after 1 year.
may have irregular bleeding, especially in the first month or so.
will need to take calcium and vitamin D every day while using this method.
will have to take oral contraceptive pills in addition to Depo-Provera when she takes antibiotics.
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Question 142 pts
A patient who is taking nifedipine develops mild edema of both feet. The primary care NP should contact the patient’s cardiologist to discuss:
changing to amlodipine.
ordering renal function tests.
increasing the dose of nifedipine.
evaluation of left ventricular function.
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Question 152 pts
A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for prophylaxis of urinary tract infections tells the primary care NP that a sibling recently died from a sudden cardiac arrest, determined to be from long QT syndrome. The NP should:
schedule a treadmill stress test.
order genetic testing for this patient.
discontinue the trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
refer the patient to a cardiologist for further evaluation.
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Question 162 pts
A patient has three consecutive blood pressure readings of 140/95 mm Hg. The patient’s body mass index is 24. A fasting plasma glucose is 100 mg/dL. Creatinine clearance and cholesterol tests are normal. The primary care NP should order:
a ?-blocker.
an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
a thiazide diuretic.
dietary and lifestyle changes.
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Question 172 pts
A male patient tells the primary care NP he is experiencing decreased libido, lack of energy, and poor concentration. The NP performs an examination and notes increased body fat and gynecomastia. A serum testosterone level is 225 ng/dL. The NP’s next action should be to:
order LH and FSH levels.
order a serum prolactin level.
prescribe testosterone replacement.
obtain a morning serum testosterone level.
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Question 182 pts
A woman has severe IBS and takes hyoscyamine sulfate (Levsin), simethicone (Phazyme), and a TCA. She reports having continued severe diarrhea. The primary care NP should:
order diphenoxylate (Lomotil).
prescribe alosetron after ruling out pregnancy.
refer her to a gastroenterologist for endoscopy.
increase the fiber in her diet to 30 g per day.
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Question 192 pts
A patient is given a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. A laboratory test confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. The primary care NP orders a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) before meals twice daily, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin. After 14 days of treatment, H. pyloriis still present. The NP should order:
continuation of the PPI for 4 to 8 weeks.
a PPI, amoxicillin, and metronidazole for 14 days.
a PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 more days.
a PPI, bismuth subsalicylate, tetracycline, and metronidazole.
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Question 202 pts
A patient is taking drug A and drug B. The primary care NP notes increased effects of drug B. The NP should suspect that in this case drug A is a cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzyme:
inhibitor.
substrate.
inducer.
metabolizer.
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Question 212 pts
The primary care NP sees a new patient who has diabetes and hypertension and has been taking a thiazide diuretic for 6 months. The patient’s blood pressure at the beginning of treatment was 150/95 mm Hg. The blood pressure today is 138/85 mm Hg. The NP should:
order a b-blocker.
add an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
continue the current drug regimen.
change to an aldosterone antagonist medication.
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Question 222 pts
A patient has been taking antibiotics to treat recurrent pneumonia. The patient is in the clinic after having diarrhea for 5 days with six to seven liquid stools each day. The primary care NP should:
obtain a stool specimen and order vancomycin.
order testing for Clostridium difficile and consider metronidazole therapy.
prescribe diphenoxylate (Lomotil) to provide symptomatic relief.
reassure the patient that diarrhea is a common side effect of antibiotic therapy.
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Question 232 pts
The primary care NP has referred a child who has significant gastrointestinal reflux disease to a specialist for consideration for a fundoplication and gastrostomy tube placement. The child’s weight is 80% of what is recommended for age, and a recent swallow study revealed significant risk for aspiration. The child’s parents do not want the procedure. The NP should:
compromise with the parents and order a nasogastric tube for feedings.
initiate a discussion with the parents about the potential outcomes of each possible action.
refer the family to a case manager who can help guide the parents to the best decision.
understand that the child’s parents have a right to make choices that override those of the medical team.
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Question 242 pts
The primary care NP prescribes an extended-cycle monophasic pill regimen for a young woman who reports having multiple partners. Which statement by the patient indicates she understands the regimen?
“I have to take a pill only every 3 months.”
“I should expect to have only four periods each year.”
“I will need to use condoms for only 7 more days.”
“This type of pill has fewer side effects than other types.”
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Question 252 pts
The primary care NP prescribes an inhaled corticosteroid for a patient who has asthma. The third-party payer for this patient denies coverage for the brand that comes in the specific strength the NP prescribes. The NP should:
provide pharmaceutical company samples of the medication for the patient.
inform the patient that the drug must be paid for out of pocket because it is not covered.
order the closest formulary-approved approximation of the drug and monitor effectiveness.
write a letter of medical necessity to the insurer to explain the need for this particular medication.
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Question 262 pts
A patient with primary hypercholesterolemia is taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. All of the patient’s baseline LFTs were normal. At a 6-month follow-up visit, the patient reports occasional headache. A lipid profile reveals a decrease of 20% in the patient’s LDL cholesterol. The NP should:
order LFTs.
order CK-MM tests.
consider decreasing the dose of the medication.
reassure the patient that this side effect is common.
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Question 272 pts
A patient who takes a thiazide diuretic will begin taking an ACE inhibitor. The primary care NP should counsel the patient to:
report wheezing and shortness of breath, which may occur with these drugs.
take care when getting out of bed or a chair after the first dose of the ACE inhibitor.
discuss taking an increased dose of the thiazide diuretic with the cardiologist.
minimize fluid intake for several days when beginning therapy with the ACE inhibitor.
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Question 282 pts
A thin 52-year-old woman who has recently had a hysterectomy tells the primary care NP she is having frequent hot flashes and vaginal dryness.A recent bone density study shows early osteopenia. The woman’s mother had CHD. She has no family history of breast cancer. The NP should prescribe:
estrogen-only HT now.
estrogen-only HT in 5 years.
estrogen-progesterone HT now.
estrogen-progesterone HT in 5 years.
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Question 292 pts
A patient who will begin using nitroglycerin for angina asks the primary care NP how the medication works to relieve pain. The NP should tell the patient that nitroglycerin acts to:
dissolve atheromatous lesions.
relax vascular smooth muscle.
prevent catecholamine release.
reduce C-reactive protein levels.
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Question 302 pts
A patient is in the clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting that has lasted 2 to 3 days. The patient has dry oral mucous membranes, a blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, a pulse of 96 beats per minute, and a temperature of 38.8° C. The primary care NP notes a capillary refill of greater than 3 seconds. The NP should:
obtain a complete blood count and serum electrolytes.
prescribe a rectal antiemetic medication.
admit to the hospital for intravenous (IV) rehydration.
encourage the patient to take small, frequent sips of Gatorade.
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Question 312 pts
A patient who has severe arthritis and who takes nonsteroidalantiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) daily develops a duodenal ulcer. The patient has tried a cyclooxygenase-2 selective NSAID in the past and states that it is not as effective as the current NSAID. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should:
prescribe cimetidine (Tagamet).
prescribe omeprazole (Prilosec).
teach the patient about a bland diet.
change the NSAID to a corticosteroid.
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Question 322 pts
A patient who has stable angina and uses sublingual nitroglycerin tablets is in the clinic and begins having chest pain. The primary care NP administers a nitroglycerin tablet and instructs the patient to lie down. The NP’s next action should be to:
obtain an electrocardiogram.
administer oxygen at 2 L/minute.
give 325 mg of chewable aspirin.
call EMS.
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Question 332 pts
A primary care NP sees a patient who is being treated for heart failure with digoxin, a loop diuretic, and an ACE inhibitor. The patient reports having nausea. The NP notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. The NP should:
decrease the dose of the diuretic to prevent further dehydration.
obtain a serum potassium level to assess for hyperkalemia.
hold the ACE inhibitor until the patient’s blood pressure stabilizes.
obtain a digoxin level before the patient takes the next dose of digoxin.
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Question 342 pts
A patient who is taking an oral anticoagulant is in the clinic in the late afternoon and reports having missed the morning dose of the medication because the prescription was not refilled. The primary care NP should counsel this patient to:
avoid foods that are high in vitamin K for several days.
take a double dose of the medication the next morning.
refill the prescription and take today’s dose immediately.
skip today’s dose and resume a regular dosing schedule in the morning.
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Question 352 pts
A primary care NP has prescribed phentermine for a patient who is obese. The patient loses 10 lb in the first month but reports that the drug does not seem to be suppressing appetite as much as before. The NP should:
discontinue the phentermine.
increase the dose of phentermine.
continue the phentermine at the same dose.
change to a combination of phentermine and topiramate.
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Question 362 pts
A 45-year-old patient who has a positive family history but no personal history of coronary artery disease is seen by the primary care NP for a physical examination. The patient has a body mass index of 27 and a blood pressure of 130/78 mm Hg. Laboratory tests reveal low-density lipoprotein, 110 mg/dL; high-density lipoprotein, 70 mg/dL; and triglycerides, 120 mg/dL. The patient does not smoke but has a sedentary lifestyle. The NP should recommend:
30 minutes of aerobic exercise daily.
taking 81 to 325 mg of aspirin daily.
beginning therapy with a statin medication.
starting a thiazide diuretic to treat hypertension.
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Question 372 pts
A patient has heart failure. A recent echocardiogram reveals decreased compliance of the left ventricle and poor ventricular filling. The patient takes low-dose furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. The primary care NP sees the patient for a routine physical examination and notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. The NP should:
order serum electrolytes.
obtain renal function tests.
consider prescribing a ?-blocker.
call the patient’s cardiologist to discuss adding digoxin to the patient’s regimen.
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Question 382 pts
A patient takes an antispasmodic and an occasional antidiarrheal medication to treat IBS. The patient comes to the clinic and reports having dry mouth, difficulty urinating, and more frequent constipation. The primary care NP notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute. The NP should:
prescribe a TCA.
discontinue the antidiarrheal medication.
encourage the patient to increase water intake.
lower the dose of the antispasmodic medication.
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Question 392 pts
A patient who has had four to five liquid stools per day for 4 days is seen by the primary care NP. The patient asks about medications to stop the diarrhea. The NP tells the patient that antidiarrheal medications are:
not curative and may prolong the illness.
useful in cases of acute infection with elevated temperature.
most beneficial when symptoms persist longer than 2 weeks.
useful when other symptoms, such as hematochezia, develop.
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Question 402 pts
A patient who has angina is taking nitroglycerin and long-acting nifedipine. The primary care NP notes a persistent blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg at several follow-up visits. The patient reports lightheadedness associated with standing up. The NP should consult with the patient’s cardiologist about changing the medication to:
amlodipine (Norvasc).
isradipine (DynaCirc).
verapamil HCl (Calan).
short-acting nifedipine (Procardia).
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Question 412 pts
A patient who has been taking digoxin 0.25 mg daily for 6 months reports that it is not working as well as it did initially. The primary care NP should:
recommend a reduced potassium intake.
increase the dose of digoxin to 0.5 mg daily.
hold the next dose of digoxin and obtain a serum digoxin level.
contact the patient’s pharmacy to ask if generic digoxin was dispensed.
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Question 422 pts
A patient is taking spironolactone and comes to the clinic complaining of weakness and tingling of the hands and feet. The primary care NP notes a heart rate of 62 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/58 mm Hg. The NP should:
obtain a serum drug level.
order an electrocardiogram (ECG) and serum electrolytes.
change the medication to a thiazide diuretic.
question the patient about potassium intake.
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Question 432 pts
The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) sees a patient in the clinic who has a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg. The patient’s laboratory tests reveal high-density lipoprotein, 35 mg/dL; triglycerides, 120 mg/dL; and fasting plasma glucose, 100 mg/dL. The NP calculates a body mass index of 29. The patient has a positive family history for cardiovascular disease. The NP should:
prescribe a thiazide diuretic.
consider treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
reassure the patient that these findings are normal.
counsel the patient about dietary and lifestyle changes.
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Question 442 pts
A patient who has primary hyperlipidemia and who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) continues to have LDL cholesterol of 140 mg/dL after 3 months of therapy. The primary care NP increases the dose from 10 mg daily to 20 mg daily. The patient reports headache and dizziness a few weeks after the dose increase. The NP should:
change the atorvastatin dose to 15 mg twice daily.
change the patient’s medication to cholestyramine (Questran).
add ezetimibe (Zetia) and lower the atorvastatin to 10 mg daily.
recommend supplements of omega-3 along with the atorvastatin.
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Question 452 pts
The primary care NP is seeing a patient for a hospital follow-up after the patient has had a first myocardial infarction. The patient has a list of the prescribed medications and tells the NP that “no one explained anything about them.” The NP’s initial response should be to:
ask the patient to describe the medication regimen.
ask the patient to make a list of questions about the medications.
determine what the patient understands about coronary artery disease.
give the patient information about drug effects and any adverse reactions.
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Question 462 pts ????
A primary care NP sees a 5-year-old child who is morbidly obese. The child has an elevated hemoglobin A1c and increased lipid levels. Both of the child’s parents are overweight but not obese, and they tell the NP that they see nothing wrong with their child. They both state that it is difficult to refuse their child’s requests for soda or ice cream. The NP should:
suggest that they give the child diet soda and low-fat frozen yogurt.
understand and respect the parents’ beliefs about their child’s self-image.
initiate a dialogue with the parents about the implications of the child’s laboratory values.
suggest family counseling to explore ways to improve parenting skills and limits.
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Question 472 pts
A primary care NP is developing a handout to give to patients who will begin self-administering insulin. When developing this handout, the NP should:
provide detailed descriptions of each step in the process of injecting insulin.
use correct medical terminology when describing insulin self-administration.
provide as much factual information as possible about insulin administration.
address one or two educational objectives that describe what the patient will learn.
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Question 482 pts
A patient reports having occasional acute constipation with large, hard stools and pain and asks the primary care NP about medication to treat this condition. The NP learns that the patient drinks 1500 mL of water daily; eats fruits, vegetables, and bran; and exercises regularly. The NP should recommend:
a daily bulk laxative.
long-term docusate sodium.
a saline laxative as needed.
glycerin suppositories as needed.
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Question 492 pts
A patient who has heart failure has been treated with furosemide and an ACE inhibitor. The patient’s cardiologist has added digoxin to the patient’s medication regimen. The primary care NP who cares for this patient should expect to monitor:
serum electrolytes.
blood glucose levels.
serum thyroid levels.
complete blood counts (CBCs).
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Question 502 pts
A 55-year-old woman has not had menstrual periods for 5 years and tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she is having increasingly frequent vasomotor symptoms. She has no family history or risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) or breast cancer but is concerned about these side effects of hormone therapy (HT). The NP should:
tell her that starting HT now may reduce her risk of breast cancer.
advise a short course of HT now that may decrease her risk for CHD.
tell her that HT will not help control her symptoms during postmenopause.
recommend herbal supplements for her symptoms to avoid HT side effects.
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Question 512 pts
A primary care NP is performing a previsit health history on a new patient. The patient reports taking vitamins every day. The NP should:
ask the patient to bring all vitamin bottles to the clinic appointment.
recommend natural vitamin products over synthetic vitamin products.
reassure the patient that vitamins that are high in folic acid are safe to take.
tell the patient that some vitamins, such as vitamin C, are safe in large doses.
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Question 522 pts
An 80-year-old patient asks a primary care NP about OTC antacids for occasional heartburn. The NP notes that the patient has a normal complete blood count and normal electrolytes and a slight elevation in creatinine levels. The NP should recommend:
calcium carbonate (Tums).
aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel).
sodium bicarbonate (Alka-Seltzer).
magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia).
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Question 532 pts
A 50-year-old woman with a family history of CHD is experiencing occasional hot flashes and is having periods every 3 to 4 months. She asks the primary care NP about HT to relieve her symptoms. The NP should:
prescribe estrogen-only therapy.
initiate oral contraceptive pills now.
discuss using bioidentical HT.
plan to use estrogen-progesterone therapy when menopause begins.
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Question 542 pts
A patient who has breast cancer has been taking toremifene for 2 weeks. She tells her primary care NP that she thinks her tumor has grown larger. The NP should:
schedule her for a breast ultrasound.
reassure her that this is common and will subside.
tell her she may need an increased dose of this medication.
contact her oncologist to discuss adding another medication.
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Question 552 pts
A patient reports having episodes of dizziness, nausea, and lightheadedness and describes a sensation of the room spinning when these occur.The primary care NP will refer the patient to a specialist who, after diagnostic testing, is likely to prescribe:
mecliz
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Nr531 1 1
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An organizational structure identifies the roles and responsibilities of those in leadership positions that will impact the goal of the organization and (Renani, Ghaderi & Mahmoudi, 2017). It also indicates how information is shared through the various levels of leadership (Marquis & Huston, 2017). It identifies the hierarchical leadership structure of an organization for accountability ( Renani et al., 2017).
SLMC is a healthcare organization that has cared for a number of its neighboring communities in the Chamberlain County of South Carolina for the last 50 years. The organization consists of 500 physicians and 450 nurses and as such needs an organized way to function where roles are defined so the goals of the organization can be met. The purpose of the organization is to improve quality care and safety and to make improvements in healthcare and to provide care of the surrounding communities.
As the nurse administrator, the organizational structure that would be best for St. Louis Medical Center (SLMC) would be the shared governance. Shared Governance in healthcare is an essential component of providing quality and safe care to patients (Marquis & Huston, 2017). Based on the structure, the decision-making process is in collaboration with board members, physicians, the leadership team, and nurses (Marquis & Huston, 2017). The structure is made of several committees tasked to lead and make decisions which will affect the care of the community. Shared governance also supports empowerment through nurse autonomy and decision making (Marquis & Huston, 2017).
The organizational theory best for this type of structure would be the contingency theory. The contingency theory allows the organization to respond to its priorities based on the needs of the organizations as well as its community (Birken, Bunger, Powell, Turner, Clary, Klaman, Weiner, 2017). The reason this type of theory would be ideal is that the structure would facilitate the development of a committee to respond to its community’s challenges. For example, addressing issues related to the ten percent increase in heart failure admissions noted. This organizational theory will positively impact the institutional goals based on the changes that can be made that will address issues inside and outside the organization and its mission and vision.
Jean Latouche
References
Birken, S. A., Bunger, A. C., Powell, B. J., Turner, K., Clary, A. S., Klaman, S. L., … Weiner, B. J. (2017). Organizational theory for dissemination and implementation research. Implementation science : IS, 12(1), 62. doi:10.1186/s13012-017-0592-x
Marquis, B. L. & Huston, C. J. (2017). Leadership roles and management functions in nursing: Theory and application. (9th ed.). China: Wolters Kluwer Health.
Renani, G. A., Ghaderi, B., & Mahmoudi, O. (2017). The Impact of Organizational Structure on the Effectiveness of Communication from the Perspective of Employees in the Department of Education. International Journal of Management, Accounting & Economics, 4(10), 989–1001.
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The case of Jim is a great example of how value based reimbursement structures are driving improvements in healthcare.
With fee for service, or volume based reimbursement, the hospital will receive reimbursement for providing care on two separate admissions, despite the fact that the second admission could possibly have been avoided. Additionally, with fee for service, there is no incentive to return the patient to the community or recover health in a timely manner. Physicians and hospitals receive more benefit from greater length of stay and additional tests and consults. With volume based reimbursement, there is no incentive to reduce costs or improve quality which negatively impacts patient satisfaction. While this form of reimbursement provides maximum profits for providers, it results in epidemic unaffordable and inaccessible healthcare for populations.
With value based reimbursement, the hospital will receive a flat fee for Jim’s diagnosis regardless of how care is provided. The hospital will also be penalized for readmission additionally reducing reimbursement. In the case of value based reimbursement, the hospital is incentivized to diagnose, treat, and recover the patient as quickly and efficiently as possible. This reduces the chances of imposed unnecessary costs to the patient and improves the likelihood of quality care and thereby patient satisfaction, which is known as the Triple Aim (Martin, 2017).
With nearly 50% of the payer mix at my institution coming from government funded healthcare, value based reimbursement has a significant impact on how we deliver care with a large focus on quality and cost reduction improvement strategies. One of the ways our hospital has tried to reduce cost is through merger. Advocate merged with Aurora Healthcare last year and the large volume of providers has allowed us to negotiate lower contracts with vendors and suppliers. Additionally, they are reducing costs by partnering with physician groups to provide services to patients and employees at reduced costs under a large HMO.
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Nr533 Week 3 1 1
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After talking to a few other people at our facility I have a better understanding of how the budget is made. As I had discussed before, we are a state ran facility so we don’t do things as easily. Our budget is set up by classifications and you cannot take one set of moneys for one classification and put it to another classification. So, if I have a PRN pool of money I cannot take that money and use it for another full time staff member because that money comes from a separate classification and budget.
The department director for mental health will lobby and push for moneys to come to our programing in the state, along with many other departments doing the same thig. A proposal would go to the Office of Administration and be looked at by the Personnel Advisory Board, if approved would then go to the Governor for his/her approval. Once that is approved by the Governor the proposal will go to legislation for a vote. If the proposal is approved then it goes back to the Department Director who will then divide that up by the various regions of the state based on how he feels it would help those regions. The Regional Directors would then decide how much of the money would go to each facility and the Chief Operating Officer (COO) would then be able to oversee the budget. This same process is used in trying to get raises for the workers and any other needs met.
This system is similar to a global budget where the budget is set for each facility and funded by the state and other payers involved (Sharfstein, Gerovich & Chin, 2017). Maryland has a global budget for rural hospital networks that also reward facilities for reduction in preventable care and penalized when a patient needs care from another facility. The biggest difference from Maryland’s Safety-Net Hospitals that are using this system is our facility does not get rewarded when we reduce cost or penalized if a client has to seek emergency medical attention multiple times for removal of a foreign object repeatedly.
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Nr533 Week 3 1 19491583
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This sounds very complicated and intensive. It is good that the employees have an understanding of the final budget so they can know their responsibility.
Dr. Strong
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Experience
I work as a Patient Care Supervisor in an Acute Care Hospital. Currently, I am taking a Nurse Executive Specialty Track for my MSN that will enhance or develop my knowledge in leadership. As a Patient Care Supervisor, I am tasked with staffing whereby I ensure there is enough staff depending on the census of the unit. Whenever there are bedside procedures, I ensure that supplies are charged. Every day I make sure that we have supplies like juice, jello for the patients, and linens. Therefore, there is need for budgeting for proper planning of the finances involved. I am also regularly consulted by the hospital CFO to report financial information for my unit that would be useful in the budgeting process.
Reflection
A preconceived notion I held is that budgeting is merely about expenses or how much money is available to be spent. Additionally, I believed that budgeting is a similar process across organizations. However, through this week’s concepts, I now have a better understanding of what budgeting entails. For instance, I am now enlightened that the budgeting process should closely consider organizational goals, mission, vision, and strategic plan. I have also learnt two types of budgeting, that is, incremental and zero-based budgeting. Incremental budgeting is common among public entities while zero-based budgeting is commonly used by private organizations (Menifield, 2017).
Implications for the Future
The knowledge gained this week has positive implications for the future. In relation to how I view my proposed project, I will take into consideration the influence of financial management on quality outcomes in patient care. An area of financial data gathering that may be useful for my plan concerns patient record keeping. The ability to comprehend the budgeting process is an added advantage for any health care leader (Leger & Dunham-Taylor, 2018).
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