

- Post a question
- Help
- Homework Answers
- Login
- Not a Member? Sign up!
quickmaster (1)3.6 (5)ChatNR507 Week 4 Midterm Latest 2017
-
- Home
- Nursing homework help
Report Issue
Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Vomiting and diarrhea
Renal failure and Addison disease
Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
20 to 30
60 to 90
100 to 120
200 to 240
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
Alcohol
Steroids
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
Question 5
0 / 2 pts
Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
A
B
C
D
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?
To evaluate the cause of hypoxia
To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane
To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
Sodium retention
Sodium excretion
Water retention
Water excretion
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
What is the most important negative inotropic agent?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Immature immune system
Small alveoli
Surfactant deficiency
Anemia
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?
Capillary hydrostatic
Interstitial hydrostatic
Plasma oncotic
Interstitial oncotic
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
Aplastic
Sideroblastic
Anemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur.
11
9
7
5
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
Macula densa
Visceral epithelium
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
Filtration slits
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
Vagus
Phrenic
Brachial
Pectoral
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?
Lying on their left side
Performing the Valsalva maneuver
Squatting
Hyperventilating
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropin hormone
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
Hypotension
Hyperesthesia
Hypoxia
Ischemia
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary edema
Jugular vein distention
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Memory T lymphocytes
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
Peripheral nerves
Parasympathetic fibers
Sympathetic nervous system
Tenth thoracic nerve roots
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
Iron deficiency
Pernicious
Sideroblastic
Hemolytic
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?
Left lung
Right lung
Trachea
Carina
Question 26
0 / 2 pts
The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?
Bones
Brain
Bladder
Kidney
Question 27
2 / 2 pts
Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?
Prefrontal cortex
Anterior pituitary
Limbic system
Hypothalamus
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?
Atelectasis and pneumonia
Edema of the hands and feet
Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet
Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
IL–1 and IL-6
IL-2 and TNF-?
IFN and IL-12
TNF-ß and IL-4
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
Fetal
Neonatal
Infancy
Puberty
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge?
Trachea
Left lung
Bronchus
Bronchioles
Question 32
2 / 2 pts
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Question 33
2 / 2 pts
Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?
0 and 1
2 and 4
5 and 6
6 and 7
Question 34
2 / 2 pts
Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?
PRS
QRS
QT interval
P
Question 35
2 / 2 pts
When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
Genital herpes
Chancroid
Syphilis
Chlamydia
Question 36
2 / 2 pts
What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Low birth weight
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Premature birth
Smoking during pregnancy
Question 37
2 / 2 pts
Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?
Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.
Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Question 38
2 / 2 pts
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Iron
Zinc
Iodine
Magnesium
Question 39
0 / 2 pts
The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?
Right-to-left blood shunting
Left-to-right blood shunting
Blood flow from the umbilical cord
Blood flow to the lungs
Question 40
2 / 2 pts
Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?
Difficult deflation
Easy inflation
Stiffness
Inability to diffuse oxygen
Question 41
2 / 2 pts
If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atri-oventricular (AV) node depolarize?
60 to 70
40 to 60
30 to 40
10 to 20
Question 42
2 / 2 pts
Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?
The resulting pain is severe.
Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
Benign tumors are fast growing.
The cells are well-differentiated.
Question 43
2 / 2 pts
How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?
75 to 100 ml
100 to 150 ml
250 to 300 ml
350 to 400 ml
Question 44
2 / 2 pts
How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?
126 mg/dl
150 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
200 mg/dl
Question 45
0 / 2 pts
Apoptosis is a(an):
Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
Question 46
0 / 2 pts
What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?
Initiates the clotting cascade.
Activates platelets.
Stimulates fibrin.
Deactivates fibrinogen.
Question 47
0 / 2 pts
Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:
High body surface–to–body size ratio
Slow metabolic rate
Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses
Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty
Question 48
0 / 2 pts
What is the action of urodilatin?
Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
Question 49
0 / 2 pts
Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?
The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.
The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.
The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.
The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.
Question 50
0 / 2 pts
Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?
Liver
Endometrial
Stomach
Colon
Question 51
0 / 2 pts
What is the trigone?
A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter
The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys
A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra
One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle
Question 52
2 / 2 pts
What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
Globulin
Albumin
Clotting factors
Complement proteins
Question 53
2 / 2 pts
The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?
Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
Diffusion rate in the renal cortex
Diffusion rate in the renal medulla
Glomerular active transport
Question 54
0 / 2 pts
Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?
Principle cells
Podocin cells
Mesangial cells
Intercalated cells
Question 55
0 / 2 pts
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?
Infants are obligatory nose breathers.
Their noses are small in diameter.
Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing.
Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s.
Question 56
2 / 2 pts
The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
16 and 20
20 and 24
24 and 30
30 and 36
Question 57
2 / 2 pts
What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)
1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)
1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)
1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)
Question 58
2 / 2 pts
A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
No antigens
No antibodies
Both A and B antigens
Both A and B antibodies
Question 59
2 / 2 pts
The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
Question 60
2 / 2 pts
What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow?
Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.
They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.
Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.
They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.
e
NR507 Week 4 Midterm Latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it

NR507Week4MidtermLatest2017.docx
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $49Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
- Applied Sciences
- Architecture and Design
- Biology
- Business & Finance
- Chemistry
- Computer Science
- Geography
- Geology
- Education
- Engineering
- English
- Environmental science
- Spanish
- Government
- History
- Human Resource Management
- Information Systems
- Law
- Literature
- Mathematics
- Nursing
- Physics
- Political Science
- Psychology
- Reading
- Science
- Social Science
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr 532 Week 3 1 1
/in Uncategorized /by developerDo you feel your policies on confidentiality and consequences for breaching confidentiality are strong in your organization and applied consistently?
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr 532 Week 31 2
/in Uncategorized /by developerrespond
Within 20 miles of our facility, there will be a new hospital that is opening up in the summer of 2020. Leading to lots of opportunities for the healthcare environment. One of the concerns with this includes how many staff members will leave to go to the new and upcoming hospital. Our human resource department estimates that we risk approximately ten percent of our staff to this new facility. At this time, we do not know what their benefits package will entail for the team. Benefits that include sign-on bonuses and tuition reimbursement may not be readily available to them, as this will be an entirely new business. Our facility has invested about 7 percent of the start-up, and another more extensive hospital system from 100 miles away has spent forty-five percent. One of the expectations of this new hospital is that it will be locally owned and ran. The physicians are fed up with big business from Colorado and California trying to run multiple hospitals.
Benefits such as tuition reimbursement and sign-on bonuses can attract new employees to an organization. What happens when they are unknown as of this a new facility and cooperation? As a nurse executive on the things that I would continue to reinforce is that the grass is not always greener on the other side. Several years ago, I worked part-time in a new hospital organization, and they severe growing pains. They did not have any formal recognition for the length of services and financial and retirement planning programs (Moon, Beck, & Laudicinia, 2014). They did not offer tuition reimbursement for those that wished to advance their degrees. As a transformational leader, one would want to have a general idea of what the staff member’s hopes and dreams are for work.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr Discussion
/in Uncategorized /by developerUnit 3: Small Group Discussion – Small Group Discussion 1
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr Rua
/in Uncategorized /by developerPURPOSE:
The purpose of this assignment is to explore a critical concept in nursing. The student will be able to demonstrate application of information literacy and ability to utilize resources (library, writing center, SmartThinking, located within the Tutor Source tab under Course Home, APA resources, Turnitin, and others) through literature search and writing the paper.
COURSE OUTCOMES:
This assignment enables the student to meet the following course outcomes.
CO 2: Identify characteristics of professional behavior including emotional intelligence, Communication, and conflict resolution.
CO 3: Demonstrate information literacy and the ability to utilize resources.
DUE DATES:
Please refer to the Course Calendar for exact due dates of the draft for peer feedback exercise and for the final paper.
REQUIREMENTS AND GUIDELINES:
Pick one of the following topics and find a scholarly nursing journal article (published within the last five years) that discusses this nursing topic.
THE TOPICS ARE:
SAFETY
DELEGATION
PRIORITIZATION
CARING
After you find a scholarly nursing journal article using the Chamberlain library resources, you will complete a one-two page summary and reflection on the article. The paper should be completed in APA format and include the following.
A cover page (not included in the page number requirement)
A reference page (not included in the page number requirement)
One direct quote from one of your references, appropriately cited in the body of your paper
One indirect quote (or paraphrased reference) appropriately cited in the body of your paper
Citations and references in APA format
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr228 Nutrition Assessment And Teaching Apa Paper
/in Uncategorized /by developerHello,
This 3-5 page paper is due tomorrow (December 8th) at 8pm. I have the guidelines and my personalized spreadsheet attached to this below.
Thank You.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr305 11159 Chamberlain
/in Uncategorized /by developerDue Date
Patient Teaching Plan assignment is due Sunday of Week 4 at 11:59 MT.
Points
This assignment is worth 125 points.
Background Information
NR305 focuses on nursing assessment, and the identification of opportunities to prevent disease and improve health of patients. An important professional role for nurses is to provide teaching to patients based on knowledge deficits identified during assessment.
Prior to beginning this assignment, follow the link to read the article below. The information related to adult learning and barriers to understanding will be helpful when planning how to best educate your selected population.
Beagley, L. (2011). Educating patients: Understanding barriers, learning styles, and teaching techniques. Journal of Paranesthesia Nursing, 26(5), 331-337. permalink (Links to an external site.)
Directions
Please read all directions carefully before you begin.
Type your answers directly into this Word document and submit. The use of correct terminology, grammar, and spelling is important! Any references and citations used should be written in APA format. Please utilize in-text citations when appropriate, and list all references in the space provided at the end of the worksheet.
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr507 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2017
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.
24 to 36
6 to 14
18 to 20
1 to 2
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?
Mycoplasma
Fungi
Viruses
Bacteria
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.
bone marrow
the lungs
the thymus gland
the central nervous system
HIV may persist in regions where the antiviral drugs are not as effective, such as the
CNS.
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?
Cardiovascular disease
Starvation
Traumatic injury
Infectious disease
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Which statement about vaccines is true?
Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.
Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection.
Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections.
Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
Which statement is true about fungal infections?
They are prevented by vaccines.
They result in release of endotoxins.
They occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?
Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.
O
B
A
A and B
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?
Pernicious anemia
Myasthenia gravis
Hemolytic anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?
DiGeorge syndrome
Bruton disease
Reticular dysgenesis
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)
disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens.
altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease.
undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens.
immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is
IgE.
IgM.
IgA.
IgG.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Magnesium
Iron
Iodine
Zinc
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
Enhancement of B cells and T cells
Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
Depression of B cells and T cells
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Stress-age syndrome results in decreased
ACTH.
catecholamines.
cortisol.
immune system.
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
IL-1 and IL-6
TNF-ß and IL-4
IL-2 and TNF-?
IFN and IL-12
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by
ACTH.
norepinephrine.
cortisol.
epinephrine.
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of
anaplasia.
dysplasia.
myoplasia.
hyperplasia.
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-?) in cell metastasis?
To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
Liposarcoma, lipoma
Adipoma, adisarcoma
Adisarcoma, adipoma
Lipoma, liposarcoma
Question 22
0 / 2 pts
In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
Chromosome fusion
Chromosome translocation
Gene amplification
Point mutation
Question 23
0 / 2 pts
Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
Growth-promoting genes
Oncogenes
Tumor-suppressor genes
Proto-oncogenes
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except
bladder.
kidney.
pancreas.
lung.
skin.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
40%
50%
70%
60%
NR507 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $25Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr507 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2017
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?
The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+
The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular sodium
The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular potassium
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate
hypercalcemia.
hypokalemia.
hyperkalemia.
hypocalcemia.
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of
1:20.
10:2.
10:5.
20:1.
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of
osmotic forces.
antidiuretic hormone.
hydrostatic forces.
plasma oncotic pressure.
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
Which are indications of dehydration?
Tachycardia and weight loss
Muscle weakness and decreased deep tendon reflexes
Polyuria and hyperventilation
Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the
capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of
cardiac cell repolarization.
depression of the sinoatrial (SA) node.
cardiac cell hypopolarization.
cardiac cell hyperexcitability.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of
chronic bronchitis.
pneumonia.
asthma.
emphysema.
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the
compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.
inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells.
increased capillary hydrostatic pressure that forces fluid into the alveoli and respiratory bronchioles.
increased capillary permeability, which causes alveoli and respiratory bronchioles to fill with fluid.
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.
20
40
30
10
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with
drugs that reduce bronchospasm.
broad-spectrum antibiotics.
elimination of the causative agent.
drugs that decrease airway inflammation.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through
decreased inspired oxygen.
diffusion abnormalities.
hypoventilation.
shunting.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?
Open pneumothorax
Secondary pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include
dyspnea on exertion and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
productive cough and rhonchi bilaterally.
peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
systemic blood pressure greater than 130/90.
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating which action?
macrophages that release TNF-alpha (TNF-α)
apoptotic infected macrophages that activate cytotoxic T cells.
phagocytosis by neutrophils and eosinophils.
formation of immunoglobulin G to initiate the complement cascade.
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.
empyema
cavitation
consolidation
abscess
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
_____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.
Pneumonia
Acute pulmonary edema
Pulmonary emboli
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Question 18
0 / 2 pts
Dyspnea is not a result of
fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.
decreased pH, increased PaCO2, and decreased PaO2.
stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.
decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing
disruption of alveolocapillary membrane.
pulmonary fibrosis.
pulmonary hypertension.
atelectasis and decreased lung compliance.
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following types of croup is most common?
Autoimmune
Bacterial
Fungal
Viral
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.
unlike that
lower than
higher than
the same as
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?
Anemia
An immature immune system
Small alveoli
A surfactant deficiency
Question 23
0 / 2 pts
Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?
Treatment includes the instillation of exogenous surfactant down an endotracheal tube of infants weighing less than 1,000 g.
Administering glucocorticoids to women in preterm labor accelerates the maturation of the fetus’s lungs.
Supporting the infant’s respiratory function by using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). An infant’s respiratory function is supported by using continuous pressure (CPAP).
Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor increases their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus.
Administration of oxygen to the mother is not a valid treatment of RDS.
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM
Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code for increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e.g., IL-4, IgE, and leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)
autosomal dominant inheritance.
autosomal recessive inheritance.
infection.
malignancy.
NR507 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $25Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr507 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2017
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when
the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).
heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.
erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of
destruction of erythrocytes.
neurologic involvement.
increased blood viscosity.
a decreased erythrocyte count.
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.
pernicious
microcytic
hypochromic
hemolytic
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting
8 to 12 months.
the rest of one’s life.
until the iron level is normal.
6 to 8 weeks.
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
In some anemias, the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as
microcytosis.
poikilocytosis.
isocytosis.
anisocytosis.
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of
renal failure.
heart failure.
brain hypoxia.
liver hypoxia.
Question 7
0 / 2 pts
Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of
inflammation and ischemia.
obstruction and pressure.
ischemia and pressure.
pressure and obstruction.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?
An IgG-mediated autoimmune disorder
Liver failure
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with antibiotic therapy
Administration of warfarin (Coumadin)
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)
IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body’s needs.
cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a); IL-1, IL-6, and IL-8; and platelet-activatingfactor (PAF)
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF); IL-3, IL-5, and IL-9, and IFN-?
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF); IL-2, IL-4, and IL-10; and IFN-?
Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF); IL-7, IL-11, and IL-14; and PAF
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
G6PD and sickle cell disease are
diagnosed equally in men and women.
inherited autosomal recessive disorders.
inherited X-linked recessive disorders.
disorders initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait
has the mildest form of the disease with normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin F, which prevents sickling.
has a mild form of sickle cell disease that causes sickling during fever and infection, but not during acidosis or hypoxia, whereas the child with sickle cells disease develops sickling during each of these conditions.
has a milder form of the disease that is characterized by vaso-occlusive crises and is believed to result from higher hemoglobin values and viscosity.
inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is
type AB blood and the fetus has type B.
Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative.
Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.
type A blood and the fetus has type O.
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
Icterus gravis neonatorum
Jaundice
Kernicterus
Icterus neonatorum
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.
30 to 50; 80
60 to 80; 120
120 to 130; 150
90 to 110; 140
Question 16
0 / 2 pts
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against
eosinophils.
basophils.
neutrophils.
platelets.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
15
10
25
20
Question 18
0 / 2 pts
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by
obesity.
hypertension.
high alcohol consumption.
diabetes mellitus.
Question 19
0 / 2 pts
What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
Increases preload and decreases afterload
Increases preload and increases afterload
Decreases preload and decreases afterload
Decreases preload and increases afterload
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
Cor pulmonale
Cerebral hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
When does most cardiovascular development occur?
Between the 12th and 14th weeks of gestation
Between the eighth and 10th weeks of gestation
By the 28th day of gestation
Between the fourth and seventh weeks of gestation
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?
Pulmonic stenosis
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Aortic stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis
Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia
Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.
right atrium; left atrium
right atrium; right ventricle
right ventricle; left ventricle
left atrium; left ventricle
NR507 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $25Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr507 Week 4 Midterm Latest 2017
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
Question
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Vomiting and diarrhea
Renal failure and Addison disease
Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
Question 3
2 / 2 pts
What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
20 to 30
60 to 90
100 to 120
200 to 240
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
Alcohol
Steroids
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
Question 5
0 / 2 pts
Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
A
B
C
D
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?
To evaluate the cause of hypoxia
To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane
To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
Sodium retention
Sodium excretion
Water retention
Water excretion
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
What is the most important negative inotropic agent?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Immature immune system
Small alveoli
Surfactant deficiency
Anemia
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
Question 11
2 / 2 pts
Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?
Capillary hydrostatic
Interstitial hydrostatic
Plasma oncotic
Interstitial oncotic
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
Aplastic
Sideroblastic
Anemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur.
11
9
7
5
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
Macula densa
Visceral epithelium
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
Filtration slits
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
Vagus
Phrenic
Brachial
Pectoral
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
Question 18
2 / 2 pts
Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?
Lying on their left side
Performing the Valsalva maneuver
Squatting
Hyperventilating
Question 19
2 / 2 pts
Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropin hormone
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
Hypotension
Hyperesthesia
Hypoxia
Ischemia
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary edema
Jugular vein distention
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Memory T lymphocytes
Question 23
2 / 2 pts
Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
Peripheral nerves
Parasympathetic fibers
Sympathetic nervous system
Tenth thoracic nerve roots
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
Iron deficiency
Pernicious
Sideroblastic
Hemolytic
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?
Left lung
Right lung
Trachea
Carina
Question 26
0 / 2 pts
The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?
Bones
Brain
Bladder
Kidney
Question 27
2 / 2 pts
Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?
Prefrontal cortex
Anterior pituitary
Limbic system
Hypothalamus
Question 28
2 / 2 pts
Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?
Atelectasis and pneumonia
Edema of the hands and feet
Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet
Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
IL–1 and IL-6
IL-2 and TNF-?
IFN and IL-12
TNF-ß and IL-4
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
Fetal
Neonatal
Infancy
Puberty
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge?
Trachea
Left lung
Bronchus
Bronchioles
Question 32
2 / 2 pts
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Question 33
2 / 2 pts
Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?
0 and 1
2 and 4
5 and 6
6 and 7
Question 34
2 / 2 pts
Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?
PRS
QRS
QT interval
P
Question 35
2 / 2 pts
When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
Genital herpes
Chancroid
Syphilis
Chlamydia
Question 36
2 / 2 pts
What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Low birth weight
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Premature birth
Smoking during pregnancy
Question 37
2 / 2 pts
Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?
Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.
Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Question 38
2 / 2 pts
Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Iron
Zinc
Iodine
Magnesium
Question 39
0 / 2 pts
The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?
Right-to-left blood shunting
Left-to-right blood shunting
Blood flow from the umbilical cord
Blood flow to the lungs
Question 40
2 / 2 pts
Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?
Difficult deflation
Easy inflation
Stiffness
Inability to diffuse oxygen
Question 41
2 / 2 pts
If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atri-oventricular (AV) node depolarize?
60 to 70
40 to 60
30 to 40
10 to 20
Question 42
2 / 2 pts
Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?
The resulting pain is severe.
Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
Benign tumors are fast growing.
The cells are well-differentiated.
Question 43
2 / 2 pts
How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?
75 to 100 ml
100 to 150 ml
250 to 300 ml
350 to 400 ml
Question 44
2 / 2 pts
How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?
126 mg/dl
150 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
200 mg/dl
Question 45
0 / 2 pts
Apoptosis is a(an):
Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
Question 46
0 / 2 pts
What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?
Initiates the clotting cascade.
Activates platelets.
Stimulates fibrin.
Deactivates fibrinogen.
Question 47
0 / 2 pts
Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:
High body surface–to–body size ratio
Slow metabolic rate
Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses
Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty
Question 48
0 / 2 pts
What is the action of urodilatin?
Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
Question 49
0 / 2 pts
Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?
The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.
The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.
The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.
The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.
Question 50
0 / 2 pts
Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?
Liver
Endometrial
Stomach
Colon
Question 51
0 / 2 pts
What is the trigone?
A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter
The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys
A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra
One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle
Question 52
2 / 2 pts
What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
Globulin
Albumin
Clotting factors
Complement proteins
Question 53
2 / 2 pts
The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?
Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
Diffusion rate in the renal cortex
Diffusion rate in the renal medulla
Glomerular active transport
Question 54
0 / 2 pts
Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?
Principle cells
Podocin cells
Mesangial cells
Intercalated cells
Question 55
0 / 2 pts
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?
Infants are obligatory nose breathers.
Their noses are small in diameter.
Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing.
Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s.
Question 56
2 / 2 pts
The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
16 and 20
20 and 24
24 and 30
30 and 36
Question 57
2 / 2 pts
What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)
1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)
1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)
1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)
Question 58
2 / 2 pts
A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
No antigens
No antibodies
Both A and B antigens
Both A and B antibodies
Question 59
2 / 2 pts
The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
Question 60
2 / 2 pts
What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow?
Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.
They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.
Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.
They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.
e
NR507 Week 4 Midterm Latest 2017
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $49Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"