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quickmaster (1)3.6 (5)ChatNR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 3)
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Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
a. Metranidazole
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
a. Commitment
b. Consensus
c. Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
a. Overweight
b. Mild obesity
c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
a. 4
b. 8 d
c. 10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
a. Low-dose aspirin
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound .
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
a. Propranolol
b. Timolol
c. Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 3)
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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose …
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Nr 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2
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Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 15
Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Veracity
Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)
a. Metranidazole
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above
Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 10
d. 15
Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.
Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
a. Low-dose aspirin
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: A bulla is:
a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?
a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence
Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above
Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:
a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills
Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?
a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test
d. When a patient has a communicable disease
Question 44: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following?
a. Western Blot
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
d. Viral load
Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH
Question 47: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 48: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
a. Commitment
b. Consensus
c. Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 2)
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $38Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 2
Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
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Nr 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
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Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
a. Metranidazole
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
a. Commitment
b. Consensus
c. Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
a. Overweight
b. Mild obesity
c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
a. 4
b. 8 d
c. 10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
a. Low-dose aspirin
b. Thiazide diuretics
c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound .
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
a. Propranolol
b. Timolol
c. Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 3)
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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose …
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5 18749361
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
a. Overweight
b. Mild obesity
c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Spores
b. Leukocytes
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
a. Propranolol
c. Ergotamine
b. Timolol
d. Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
Perfect answer to all questions
Purchase the answer to view it
Try it first(plagiarism check)Buy tutorial $20Save time and money!
Our teachers already did such homework, use it as a reference!
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 5)
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for …
Blog ArchiveCopyright © 2019 HomeworkMarket.com Read More
"Looking for a Similar Assignment? Get Expert Help at an Amazing Discount!"
Nr 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
/in Uncategorized /by developerReport Issue
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Question : Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
a. Overweight
b. Mild obesity
c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
a. Radical orchidectomy
b. Lumpectomy
c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
a. Spores
b. Leukocytes
c. Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
b. Pelvic ultrasound
c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
a. Propranolol
c. Ergotamine
b. Timolol
d. Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm (Exam Version 5)
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NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. …
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Nr 531 Week 2 1
/in Uncategorized /by developerRespond
Hiring more nursing assistants to assist during registered nurses'(RNs) shortage can be very challenging. Currently, I am working in the critical care unit (CCU), where we always used total patient care delivery assignments. The staff work 12-hour shifts, and each nurse is assigned for two patients, depending on the patients’ acuity. According to Marquis and Huston (2017), total-patient-care (TPC) nursing is the oldest patient-delivery model. With this model, one bedside nurse oversees the total care of patients during the assigned shift. The total responsibilities of the bedside nurse for a patient’s care include bathing, bed making, administering medications, vital signs, carrying out all ordered treatments, dressing changes, patient teaching, discharge planning, and updating patient care plan, etc (Marquis & Huston, 2017). We do not have nursing assistants in the CCU to help our nurses with all these responsibilities. Unfortunately, two months ago, we have about six nurses who resigned due to professional advancement and relocation.
Since we have a nurses shortage and hiring nurses is a long process, we (CCU leaders and the senior executive leadership) decided to collaborate with other departments to give us task nurses or nursing assistants which we called clinical partners (CP). Since both task nurses and the CPs will work under the supervision of the supervisor or the charge nurse, this delivery care model will fall under the functional-care model. A task nurse is a medical-surgical or telemetry nurse who is responsible for giving medications according to her job descriptions, checking blood sugar, etc. The nursing assistants’ tasks are to help CCU nurses in bathing the patients and foley care, changing linens, answering call lights, etc.
Marquis and Huston (2017) noted that functional-care model (FCM) was found to be more cost-efficient due to the lower number of RNs required per shift. FCM involves assigning tasks to various team members based on the patients’ complexity or acuity of care needed. Generally, routine tasks are done by persons who are not RN, and the RN oversees more complex patients’ needs. With this model, the unit charge nurse makes the patients’ assignments for the team because she/he has more knowledge of all the patients’ needs (Marquis & Huston, 2017). However, switching from TPC to FCM has a significant impact on the patients’ quality of care in our unit. Our patients’ satisfaction dropped this month by 30%. Marquis and Huston (2017) outlined that the FCM quality of care was found to be less than with the total-patient-care model (Marquis & Huston, 2017). In my experience, hiring more nursing assistants to assist during nurses shortage will help to lessen the nurses’ workload in the CCU temporarily. On the other hand, having more certified critical nurses improve patients’ safety and outcomes.
Meanwhile, hiring more nursing assistants to assist during nurses’ shortage can impact patients’ quality of care and staff satisfaction on St. Louis Medical Center (SLMC). As a nurse administrator at SLMC, I will use evidence-based practice, current literature, and scientific research to analyze proposed changes in nursing care delivery models. I will also make changes in work design to facilitate meeting organizational goals. Also, I will arrange a departmental meeting involving staff-led representatives from all nursing departments to ensure that everyone has a voice. Finally, I will empower each unit-based practice councils/members to be involved in unit problem solving such as short staffing and develop action plans to resolve the issues. During the meeting, I will seek feedback from my direct reports and the staff and ask them “what’s working well and what is not?” and to know what I can offer for them.
One of the mechanisms used to promote employees’ growth and development in an organization’s long-term plan is empowerment and to support staff during times of difficult transitions (Choi, Goh, Adam, & Tan, 2016). Johnston and Villa (2018) outline that the Chief Nursing Officer should ensure successful engagement by integrating a shared governance council (SGC). SGC involves monthly meetings with bedside nurses to express issues, share best practices, develop action plans, and raise specific challenges to administration (Johnston & Villa, 2018).
References
Marquis, B. L., & Huston, C. J. (2017). Leadership roles and management functions in nursing: Theory and application. (9th ed.). Philadelphia: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Choi, S. L., Goh, C. F., Adam, M. B. H., & Tan, O. K. (2016). Transformational leadership, empowerment, and job satisfaction: the mediating role of employee empowerment. Human Resources for Health, 14(1). doi: 10.1186/s12960-016-0171-2
Johnston, D., & Villa, J. (2018). Shifting culture: A new CNO leading to nursing excellence. Journal of Nursing Administration, 48(9), 422. Retrieved from https://search-ebscohost-com.chamberlainuniversity.idm.oclc.org/login.aspx?direct=true&db=edb&AN=131663203&site=eds-live&scope=site
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Nr 531 Week 2
/in Uncategorized /by developerWeek 2: Care Delivery Models and Effective Nurse Administrators
You are the nurse administrator at SLMC. Your Human Resources Director informed you that SLMC is having difficulty recruiting registered nurses for your facility. It was decided by the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to hire more nursing assistants to assist during this shortage. Discuss the impact this new strategy/model may have on the organization and how an effective leader can assist with implementing this change.
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Nr 531 Week 3 Big
/in Uncategorized /by developer*Please note that in NR531 students must use at least three scholarly sources and keep all assignments to a maximum of three pages, excluding the title page and reference list.
Purpose
The purposes of this assignment are to: (a) identify and articulate key concepts of one of the following: either your future pathway to excellence or your shared-governance model you wish to initiate at one of the three areas: 1. Saint Louis Medical Center (SLMC)/community or critical access hospital, 2. Home health/community transition, or 3. Long term care/skilled nursing facility (SNF) or memory care (CO 5), (b) provide empirical, scholarly evidence to support your proposed project (CO 4), and (c) communicate your information in a clear, succinct, and scholarly manner (CO 5).
Note: You are completing this assignment as if you are the nurse executive. You are to decide whether you wish to focus on implementing your pathway to excellence or a shared governance model. You will choose one of the areas to implement either your pathway to excellence or your shared governance model. What elements would like to adopt and implement for your organization?
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
(CO4) Apply the use of research in the evaluation of healthcare outcomes, utilizing critical thinking skills, and interprofessional research strategies. (PO4)
(CO5) Examine effective verbal and written communication; utilizing communication skills of the professional role to promote and improve quality and safety in healthcare. (PO1, 2, 5)
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Nr 531 Week 3 Init
/in Uncategorized /by developerWeek 3: Shared Governance and the Magnet Model
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Describe the nursing care delivery model used at your current or previous employer. Would you utilize this model at SLMC? Discuss current interprofessional collaboration and how you would encourage collaborative efforts. Does the model support the person-centred nursing framework by McCormack and McCance (2017)? Explain your rationale for choosing to use or not use the person-centred nursing framework.
Please refer back to the 2017 PCNF overview presented below.
Patient-Centered Care: A Person-Centred Care Model Revisited
Caring continues to be a central concept in nursing; however, the context for caring is transforming, resulting in conceptual and theoretical advancements related to the evolving healthcare practice settings. McCormack and McCance originally developed a Person-Centred Nursing (PCN) Framework in 2006 and updated it in 2010 that can be applied to practice in complex healthcare systems (McCormack & McCance, 2006; McCormack & McCance, 2017). The PCN Framework provides a standard of care for practice and is a multidimensional process that places emphasis on the person as the center of care delivery (McCance, McCormack, & Dewing, 2011). The PCN Framework fosters outcomes related to therapeutic relationships through respecting individuals as persons and partners in care. The Person-Centred Care Nursing Framework consists of four constructs: prerequisites, the care environment, person-centred processes, and outcomes (McCance et al., 2011). To deliver effective care, one must work from the outer circle first to the core. McCormack, B. & McCance, T. (2017)Prerequisites focus on the attributes of the nurses and include being professionally competent, having developed interpersonal skills, being committed to the job, being able to demonstrate clarity of beliefs and values, and knowing self. The care environment focuses on the context in which care is delivered and includes appropriate skill mix, systems that facilitate shared decision making, effective staff relationships, organizational systems that are supportive, the sharing of power, the potential for innovation and risk taking, and the physical environment. Person-centred processes focus on delivering care through a range of activities and include working with a patient’s beliefs and values to overcome this gap between the concept and the reality of person-centred care we have developed the Person-Centred Nursing Framework…engagement, having sympathetic presence, sharing decision making, and providing holistic care. Outcomes, the central component of the Framework, are the results of effective, person-centred nursing and include: satisfaction with care, involvement in care, feeling of well-being, and creating a therapeutic environment. (McCance, McCormack, & Dewing, 2011).
McCormack, B. & McCance, T. (2017)
Reference
McCormack, B. & McCance, T. (2017). Person-centered practice in nursing and health care. Theory and practice (2nd ed.). Oxford: Wiley Blackwell.
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Nr 531 Week 7
/in Uncategorized /by developerRequirements:
Preparing the paper
Note: Please use the resources in your Roussel textbook, Chapter 15, to assist with how to write an executive summary format to articulate the results of your Magnet report from ANCC.
Note: There are several formats of an executive summary in your text or on the internet. As the nurse executive, you may choose which style you prefer.
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Nr 5313 1 2
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Patient care delivery model is the method used to deliver care to patient and it depends on multiple factors such as financial, staffing capability, patient population, organizational mission and philosophy (Motacki & Burke, 2017). The health care delivery system stipulates how care is delivered, coordinated, and the skill sets required. The basic elements of any health care delivery rely on its clinical decision making, work allocation, communication, management, coordination and accountability (Motacki et al., 2017). In my current employer, the nursing care delivery model used is the functional structure. Service and department are arranged based on expertise. Each department functions independently. I would definitely apply the functional structure model at SLMC by incorporating interprofessional collaboration. As long as there is interprofessional collaboration and effective communication with care coordination among providers I believe any health care delivery model will work.
At SLMC great emphasis is placed on optimizing the quality of life of all those served beyond traditional medical needs rather the whole person. Not much is mentioned at SLMC about interprofessional collaboration- however at my current employment, interdepartmental consult is placed to other services to address individual needs. On the units every morning we have the interdisciplinary grand rounds that includes the intensivist, the clinical pharmacist, the dietician, social worker and the in care of the patient. The patients do not get to participate however, they normally have a family meeting to address needs of patient and their families. The focus is placed on the individuals and their families and we have been encouraged to do hand-off communication at the bedside so patient can be part of the discussion. I believe this model support the person-centered nursing framework by McCormack and MCCance (2017). According to McCormack and MCCance (2017) person centered practice (PCN) is a consensus approach among all healthcare providers to foster a healthful relationship with patients and their family by respecting their values and beliefs. PCN placed great importance on empowering the individual with education and knowledge to assist with making informed decisions regarding their healthcare needs Bechtold & Fredericks (2014).
Patient-centered care and treating patients as individuals are hallmarks of excellent care by registered nurses (Radwin, Cabral, Seibert, Stolzmann, Meterko, Evans, Barker et al., 2019). The PCN Framework has four constructs where the provider is providing are has to be aware of self, competent, has great interpersonal skills, and being committed to the job. The Care environment that support sharing decision making through a supportive organizational structure such as shared governance to allow the staff at the frontline to impact care. The person- which values and beliefs are respected and care is provided on a mutual respect- be available to assist with physical needs. The patient satisfaction of the care provided is the expected outcomes where a therapeutic environment is created, pt involve in his/her care, overall, feeling of well-being (McCormack et al., 2017)
I strongly support the use of the person -centered nursing framework because this framework addresses all dimensions of caring which are the four constructs. It depict the quality nurses must demonstrate such as commitment to the profession, beliefs and values clarification, a sense of self have great interpersonal skills and professionally competent, combine with an organizational structure that supports share decision making, healthful work environment that address individual physical needs, and promote a therapeutic approach to effectively provide holistic care. The patient perception of quality of care determines his or her satisfaction. As I previously mentioned, the healthcare professional core values as prerequisites to deliver holistic care approach that acknowledge the needs of the patient and empower the patient with education that would aid in decision making process. As well as working collaboratively with the interprofessional team at all level to engage the patient and family to improve care outcome and staff satisfaction. Patient -centered care is not limited to the patient, but it also accounts families, and caregivers who are involved. It provides distinct information about health-care effectiveness, comprising improvement of patient experiences and outcomes and health-care provider satisfaction, while decreasing health-care services utilization and cost (Santana, Manalili, Jolley, Zelinky, Quan, & Lu, 2018).
Bechtold, A., & Fredericks, S. (2014). Key concepts in patient-centered care. American Nurse Today, 9(7), 35. Retrieved from https://search-ebscohost-com.chamberlainuniversity (Links to an external site.). .oclc.org/login.aspx?direct=true&db=edo&AN=97097993&site=eds-live&scope=site
McCormark, B. & McCance, T. (2017). Person-centered practice in nursing and health care. Theory and and practice (2nd ed.) Oxford: Wiley Blackwell.
Motacki, K., & Burke, K. (2017). Nursing Delegation and Management of Patient Care – E-Book (Vol. 2nd edition). St. Louis, Missouri: Mosby. Retrieved from https://search-ebscohost-com.chamberlainuniversity.idm.oclc.org/login.aspx?direct=true&db=nlebk&AN=1214091&site=eds-live&scope=site (Links to an external site.)
Radwin, L. E., Cabral, H. J., Seibert, M. N., Stolzmann, K., Meterko, M., Evans, L. & Barker et al.,(2019). Patient-centered care in primary care scale: Pilot development and psychometric assessment. Journal Of Nursing Care Quality, 34(1), 34–39. https://doi-org.chamberlainuniversity (Links to an external site.). idm.oclc.org/10.1097/ NCQ.0000000000000341
Santana, M. J., Manalili, K., Jolley, R. J., Zelinsky, S., Quan, H., & Lu, M. (2018). How to practice person‐centered care: A conceptual framework. Health Expectations, 21(2), 429–440. doi:10.1111/hex.12640
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