1. Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? 

2. Question : What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue?

3. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found?

4. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?

5. Question : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:

6. Question : When renin is released, it is capable of which action?

7. Question : The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?

8. Question : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?

9. Question : How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?

10. Question : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

11. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?

12. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

13. Question : An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?

14. Question : What is the function of erythrocytes?

15. Question : Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

16. Question : What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?

17. Question : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?

18. Question : The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?

19. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?

20. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults?

21. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?

22. Question : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?

23. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?

24. Question : The function of the tumor cell marker is to:

25. Question : Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?

26. Question : Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?

27. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?

28. Question : Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?

29. Question : Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):

30. Question : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?

31. Question : What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?

32. Question : Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:

33. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?

34. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?

35. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?

36. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women?

37. Question : Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?

38. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?

39. Question : What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

40. Question : Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?

41. Question : Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?

42. Question : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?

43. Question : Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones?

44. Question : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?

45. Question : Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

46. Question : What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?

47. Question : Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons:

48. Question : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?

49. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?

50. Question : Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?

51. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?

52. Question : What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?

53. Question : An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?

54. Question : What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?

55. Question : Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact?

56. Question : The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:

57. Question : Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?

58. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?

59. Question : Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?

60. Question : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?

61. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?

62. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?

63. Question : The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?

64. Question : What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?

65. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:

66. Question : Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?

67. Question : Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?

68. Question : What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?

69. Question : An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?

70. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:

71. Question : Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?

72. Question : Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?

73. Question : Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?

74. Question : How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?

75. Question : Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?

• Posted: 2 years ago

NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Version 2 Solutions)

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NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1. Question : Which statement is true about fungal infections?

2. Question : Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

3. Question : After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4. Question : What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

5. Question : Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

6. Question : Which statement about vaccines is true?

7. Question : The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

8. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

9. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

10. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

11. Question : Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

12. Question : In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of

13. Question : What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

14. Question : During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by

15. Question : Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

16. Question : Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17. Question : What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

18. Question : Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that

19. Question : Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20. Question : Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

21. Question : Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

22. Question : Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23. Question : In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

24. Question : Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25. Question : Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

1. Question: In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of cardiac cell hypopolarization.

2. Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? 

3. Question: Which are indications of dehydration? 

4. Question: At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

5. Question: Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced? 

6. Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)? 

7. Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of 

8. Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.

9. Question: Dyspnea is not a result of 

10. Question: Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include 

11. Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg. 

12. Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of 

13. Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration? 

14. Question: A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma

15. Question: Which of the following is a true statement? 

16. Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through 

17. Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with 

18. Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating 

19. Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing 

20. Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n) 

21. Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn? 

22. Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n) 

23. Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults. 

24. Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common? 

25. Question: Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect? 

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

• Question 1. A 72-year-old woman with a recent onset of syncopal episodes has been referred to a cardiology group by her family physician. As part of the patient’s diagnostic workup, the nurse practitioner conducting the intake assessment has ordered a Holter monitor for 24 hours. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of Holter monitoring? 

• Question 2. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? 

• Question 3. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient’s condition? 

• Question 4. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? 

• Question 5. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn’t even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? 

• Question 6. A 66-year-old patient’s echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis? 

• Question 7. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider’s preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? 

• Question 8. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis? 

• Question 9. A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of lightheadedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia and she is suspected of having sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion? 

• Question 10. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor? 

• Question 11. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? 

• Question 12. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? 

• Question 13. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks’ gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? 

• Question 14. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient’s nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner’s choice of blood work? 

• Question 15. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? 

• Question 16. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient’s nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? 

• Question 17. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? 

• Question 18. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? 

• Question 19. A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient’s most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it? 

• Question 20. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist’s report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? 

• Question 21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides? 

• Question 22. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? 

• Question 23. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? 

• Question 24. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has a long-standing diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following short-term and longer-term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure? 

• Question 25. A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

1. Question : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

2. Question : Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?

4. Question : Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

5. Question : The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

6. Question : Hormones are effective communicators because they

7. Question : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

8. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

9. Question : Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

10. Question : Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

11. Question : A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

12. Question : Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13. Question : The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

14. Question : Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

15. Question : Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

16. Question : The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

17. Question : A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

18. Question : Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the

19. Question : Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by

20. Question : Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

21. Question : The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

22. Question : The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is

23. Question : Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

24. Question : A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is

25. Question : The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

1. Question : _____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.

2. Question : What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well defined and not easily separated from normal bone?

3. Question : _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4. Question : Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

5. Question : Which statement is false about giant cell tumors?

6. Question : Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

7. Question : What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

8. Question : Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9. Question : Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

10. Question : Ewing sarcoma arises from

11. Question : Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

12. Question : Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13. Question : The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving

14. Question : The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15. Question : An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

16. Question : Which type of psoriasis is characterized by lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous?

17. Question : Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with

18. Question : An older adult man states he has a sore above his lip that has not healed and is getting bigger. The nurse observes a red scaly patch with an ulcerated center and sharp margins. The nurse recognizes these features as commonly associated with Bowen disease, a form of

19. Question : Which receptors of the autonomic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?

20. Question : Treatment for frostbite includes

21. Question : Rubeola is a highly contagious acute _____ disease in children.

22. Question : What is a common source of tinea corporis?

23. Question : Which skin disorder has as its hallmark clinical manifestation skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust?

24. Question : Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?

25. Question : What is the cause of chickenpox?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

1. Question : Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the

2. Question : Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which anatomic location(s)?

3. Question : What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?

4. Question : With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

5. Question : The body compensates to a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing

6. Question : Characteristics of primary motor neuron amyotrophy include

7. Question : In Parkinson disease (PD), the basal ganglia influences the hypothalamic function to produce which grouping of clinical manifestations?

8. Question : What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities?

9. Question : Multiple sclerosis (MS) and Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) are similar in that they both

10. Question : The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of

11. Question : A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is

12. Question : Spinal cord injuries are most likely to occur in which of the following regions?

13. Question : Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?

14. Question : Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

15. Question : Which electrolyte imbalance contributes to lithium toxicity?

16. Question : A _____ is the test done on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect.

17. Question : Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

18. Question : The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include

19. Question : A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?

20. Question : The most common manifestation of portal hypertension induced splenomegaly is

21. Question : The desire to eat is stimulated by

22. Question : Meconium _____ is an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine.

23. Question : Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

24. Question : Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

25. Question : Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

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NR 507 Weekly Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 2)

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NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1.  Question: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

2.  Question: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

3.  Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4.  Question: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

5.  Question: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

6.  Question: Which statement about vaccines is true?

7.  Question: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

8.  Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

9.  Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

10.  Question: What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

11.  Question: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

12.  Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

13.  Question: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

14.  Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

15.  Question: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

16.  Question: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17.  Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

18.  Question: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

19.  Question: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20.  Question: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

21.  Question: In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

22.  Question: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23.  Question: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

24.  Question: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25.  Question: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

1.  Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

2.  Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3.  Question: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

4.  Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

5.  Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

6.  Question: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

7.  Question: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

8.  Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

9.  Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

10.  Question: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

11.  Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12.  Question: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

13.  Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

14.  Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

15.  Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

16.  Question: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

17.  Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

18.  Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

19.  Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

20.  Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

21.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

22.  Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

23.  Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

24.  Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

25.  Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

1.  Question: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

2.  Question: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

3.  Question: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

4.  Question: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

5.  Question: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

6.  Question: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

7.  Question: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

8.  Question: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

9.  Question: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

10.  Question: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

11.  Question: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

12.  Question: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

13.  Question: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

14.  Question: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

15.  Question: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

16.  Question: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

17.  Question: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

18.  Question: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

19.  Question: What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

20.  Question: Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

21.  Question: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

22.  Question: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

23.  Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

24.  Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

25.  Question: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

1. Question: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

2.  Question: Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3.  Question: A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

4.  Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

5.  Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

6.  Question: A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

7.  Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

8.  Question: Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

9.  Question: The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

10.  Question: Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

11.  Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

12.  Question: Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13.  Question: The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

14.  Question: The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

15.  Question: Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

16.  Question: What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

17.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

18.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

19.  Question: The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

20.  Question: The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

21.  Question: Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

22.  Question: The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is

23.  Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

24.  Question: A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

25.  Question: Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

1.  Question: A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture.

2.  Question: Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

3.  Question: _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

5.  Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

6.  Question: Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

7.  Question: Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

8.  Question: Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9.  Question: An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

10.  Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

11.  Question: Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

12.  Question: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13.  Question: The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.

14.  Question: The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15.  Question: Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

16.  Question: Chickenpox may be followed years later by

17.  Question: Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n)

18.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

19.  Question: Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

20.  Question: Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

21.  Question: Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

22.  Question: Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

23.  Question: What is the cause of chickenpox?

24.  Question: Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

25.  Question: What is a common source of tinea corporis?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

1.  Question: Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?

2.  Question: What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?

3.  Question: Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing

4.  Question: Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?

5.  Question: Which disease process is infratentorial?

6.  Question: Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

7.  Question: Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

8.  Question: With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

9.  Question: What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

10.  Question: A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.

11.  Question: Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

12.  Question: Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

13.  Question: Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

14.  Question: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression

15.  Question: What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

16.  Question: Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

17.  Question: The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

18.  Question: Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n)

19.  Question: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by

20.  Question: _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.

21.  Question: Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

22.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

23.  Question: Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

24.  Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

25.  Question: An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?

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NR 507 Weekwise Quizzes Week 1 – 7 (Version No. 3)

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