Question 1 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options: 

a) Pancreatitis

b) Peptic ulcer disease

c) Diverticulitis

d) All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?

Question options:

a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.

b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.

c) Recommend cranberry supplements.

d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

Question options:

a) Repeat the test.

b) Refer to a nephrologist.

c) Measure the serum protein.

d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?

Question options:

a) 0.05% liquid formulation

b) 0.1% cream

c) 1% foam

d) 0.02% cream

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?

Question options:

a) Pruritis

b) Glycosuria

c) Irritability

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?

Question options:

a) Keratosis pilaris

b) Dennie’s sign

c) Keratoconus

d) Pityriasis alba

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Erectile dysfunction

b) Glaucoma

c) Hypotension

d) Headache

Question 8 2 / 2 points

When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?

Question options:

a) A piece of hair or a thread

b) Hyphae

c) Leukocytes

d) Spores

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?

Question options:

a) Vagistat vaginal cream

b) Monistat combination pack

c) Terazol vaginal cream

d) Diflucan, 150 mg

Question 10 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

Question options:

a) NSAIDs

b) Beets

c) Vitamin A

d) Red meat

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

Question options:

a) BUN and creatinine

b) Electrolytes

c) Creatinine clearance

d) Urinalysis

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?

Question options:

a) 35

b) 50

c) 70

d) 85

Question 13 0 / 2 points

When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?

Question options:

a) Spores

b) Leukocytes

c) Pseudohyphae

d) Epithelial cells

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?

Question options:

a) Last menstrual period

b) Method of birth control

c) Last unprotected sexual contact

d) All of the above

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?

Question options:

a) Urinalysis

b) Gram stain of urethral discharge

c) Complete blood cell count with differential

d) Ultrasound of the scrotum

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?

Question options:

a) Bullous impetigo

b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

c) Nonbullous impetigo

d) Ecthyma

Question 18 2 / 2 points

An example of ecchymosis is:

Question options:

a) A hematoma

b) A keloid

c) A bruise

d) A patch

Question 19 2 / 2 points

An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Prostate cancer

d) All of the above

Question 20 0 / 2 points

A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Testosterone level

b) Prostate-specific antigen

c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

d) Prolactin level

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Peyronie’s disease

b) Damage to the pudendal artery

c) Scarring of the cavernosa

d) All of the above

Question 22 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 23 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Tinea unguium is also known as:

Question options:

a) Onychomycosis

b) Tinea versicolor

c) Tinea manuum

d) Tinea corporis

Question 25 2 / 2 points

The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?

Question options:

a) Recent heat stroke

b) Nephrolithiasis

c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment

d) All of the above

Question 26 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?

Question options:

a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.

b) Pinch the skin taut together.

c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.

d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?

Question options:

a) Diarrhea

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Closed-angle glaucoma

d) Breast cancer

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 29 2 / 2 points

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 30 2 / 2 points

Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?

Question options:

a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.

b) Josh has red papules on his face.

c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.

d) There are white streaks on his neck.

Question 31 2 / 2 points

The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:

Question options:

a) A skin tag

b) Actinic keratosis

c) A melanoma

d) A basal cell lesion

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?

Question options:

a) Telogen effluvium (TE)

b) Trichotillomania

c) Psoriasis

d) Alopecia areata

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?

Question options:

a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day

b) Ice pack to the scrotal area

c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day

d) All of the above

Question 34 2 / 2 points

A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Lower urinary tract infection

b) Chlamydia infection

c) Candidiasis

d) Pyelonephritis

Question 35 2 / 2 points

Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?

Question options:

a) Milk

b) Bananas

c) Soy sauce

d) All of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:

Question options:

a) Bulla

b) Scale

c) Excoriation

d) Fissure

Question 37 2 / 2 points

A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?

Question options:

a) Urethral polyps

b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)

c) Anticholinergic medication

d) All of the above

Question 38 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?

Question options:

a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”

b) “What medications are you currently taking?”

c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”

d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?

Question options:

a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”

b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”

c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”

d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?

Question options:

a) Warm sitz baths

b) Scrotal elevation

c) Masturbation

d) All of the above

Question 41 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?

Question options:

a) Hypertension

b) Constipation

c) Tubal ligation

d) Diabetes

Question 42 2 / 2 points

A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Psychogenic nocturia

b) Urethral polyp

c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion

d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Question 43 0 / 2 points

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?

Question options:

a) Staphylococcal aureus

b) Clostridium perfringens

c) S. pyrogenes

d) Streptococcus

Question 45 2 / 2 points

Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Kaposi’s sarcoma

c) Cellulitis

d) A diabetic ulcer

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?

Question options:

a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.

b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.

c) Their skin is thicker.

d) Their immune system is stronger.

Question 47 2 / 2 points

A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?

Question options:

a) Escherichia coli

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Chlamydia trachomatis

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 48 2 / 2 points

When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?

Question options:

a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.

b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.

c) Only take short tepid showers.

d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.

Question 49 2 / 2 points

Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?

Question options:

a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.

b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.

c) Drink more black tea.

d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?

Question options:

a) 3 to 7 days

b) 14 to 21 days

c) 3 to 6 weeks

d) 6 to 12 weeks

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Question 1 2 / 2 points

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 3 2 / 2 points

After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Question options:

a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.

b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.

c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.

d) All of the above

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Question options:

a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 5 2 / 2 points

John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Question options:

a) Valgus stress test

b) McMurray circumduction test

c) Lachman test

d) Varus stress test

Question 6 2 / 2 points

The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

Question options:

a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Question options:

a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

d) All of the above

Question 8 2 / 2 points

The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?

Question options:

a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s

b) Recent exposure to mumps

c) Vegetarian diet

d) Allergy to iodine

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Question options:

a) Rice

b) Carrots

c) Spinach

d) Potatoes

Question 10 2 / 2 points

One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:

Question options:

a) Goiter

b) Abnormal serum calcium

c) Elevated urine biochemical markers

d) Bony fracture

Question 11 2 / 2 points

After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Question options:

a) Elevated TSH

b) Normal TSH

c) Low TSH

d) Undetectable TSH

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Question options:

a) Decreased C-reactive protein

b) Hyperalbuminemia

c) Morning stiffness

d) Weight gain

Question 13 2 / 2 points

The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 14 2 / 2 points

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Question options:

a) Gastrocnemius weakness

b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex

c) Numbness in the lateral foot

d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 18 2 / 2 points

You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?

Question options:

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Question 19 2 / 2 points

A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

Question options:

a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

d) All of the above

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

Question options:

a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose

b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

c) Reduces total cholesterol

d) All of the above

Question 22 0 / 2 points

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

Question 23 2 / 2 points

The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”

c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”

d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

Question 24 2 / 2 points

A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 25 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?

Question options:

a) Check his blood sugar.

b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.

c) Call 911.

d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.

Question 26 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

Question options:

a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

b) Free T4 and serum calcium

c) Free T3 and T4

d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Question options:

a) Serum calcium

b) TSH

c) Electrolytes

d) Urine specific gravity

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?

Question options:

a) History of hypertension

b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.

c) Her history of diabetes mellitus

d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.

Question 29 2 / 2 points

What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

Question options:

a) 1,200 mg/day

b) 1,000 mg/day

c) 1,300 mg/day

d) 1,500 mg/day

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Question options:

a) Sinus bradycardia

b) Atrial fibrillation

c) Supraventricular tachycardia

d) U waves

Question 31 2 / 2 points

You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Question options:

a) Articular

b) Inflammatory

c) Nonarticular

d) A and B

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?

Question options:

a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.

b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.

c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.

d) All of the above

Question 33 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?

Question options:

a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.

b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.

c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.

d) None of the above

Question 35 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:

Question options:

a) Apprehension sign

b) Bulge sign

c) Thumb sign

d) None of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?

Question options:

a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts

b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis

c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis

d) All of the above

Question 37 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Bone scan

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan

c) X-ray of the foot

d) Culture of the ulcer

Question 38 2 / 2 points

One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Question options:

a) Bone

b) Synovium

c) Tendons

d) Fascia

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?

Question options:

a) Elevated uric acid level

b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen

c) Decreased urine pH

d) Decreased C-reactive protein

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?

Question options:

a) Myxedema

b) Thyrotoxicosis

c) Cushing’s syndrome

d) Pan-hypopituitarism

Question 42 0 / 2 points

How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Question options:

a) Once a year

b) Every 6 months

c) Every 3 months

d) Every visit

Question 43 2 / 2 points

A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Question options:

a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.

b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.

c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.

d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 45 2 / 2 points

The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?

Question options:

a) Low-dose aspirin

b) Thiazide diuretics

c) Ethambutol

d) All of the above

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 47 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 49 2 / 2 points

The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?

Question options:

a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

b) RAI binds free T4.

c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.

d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

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  Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

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