Nr 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1 2 3 And 5 18749349

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1, 2, 3 & 5 

Version 1

Question 1:  Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2:  African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids

b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid

Question 3:  Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4:  Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine

Question 5:  Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.

b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.

c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.

Question 6:  Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

a. Dementia

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Delirium

Question 7:  You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”

Question 8:  A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs

b. Beets

c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat

Question 9:  Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10:  Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

a. Glaucoma

b. Increased sperm quality

c. Bladder cancer

d. Eczema

Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:

a. 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

a.Parkinson’s disease

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. A CVA

d. Bell’s palsy

Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

a. Tension

b. Migraine

c. Cluster

d. Stress

Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

a. African American men

b. Scandinavian men and women

c. Caucasian women

d. Asian men

Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

a. Pharyngitis

b. Allergies

c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d. Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16:  Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).

Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.

b. This condition only occurs on the face.

c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

a. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Hypertensive

c. Normal in healthy older adults

d. Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever

Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

a. He should stop smoking today.

b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c. His quit date should be in 1 week.

d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days

Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes

d. Epithelial cells

Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

a. Permethrin cream

b. Lindane

c. Crotamiton lotion and cream

d. Ivermectin

Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

a. Viral conjunctivitis

b. Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate

a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem

Question 30:  Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32:  Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. CN V

b. CN VII

c. CN IX

d. CN X

Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray

b. Cystoscopy with biopsy

c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

a. Biopsy. 

b. Best practice. 

c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.

Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.

d. These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

a. Greater than 30

b. Greater than 40

c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60

Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
 

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus 

Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

a. Serum calcium

b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d. Complete blood cell count

Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above

Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis

Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she  heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin

b. Quinolone

c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide

Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b. Otosclerosis

c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis

Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

a. An ulcer

b. A fissure

c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation

Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgG
d. IgM

Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Peptic ulcer disease

c. Diverticulitis

d. All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

a. B-type natriuretic peptide

b. C-reactive protein

c. Serum albumin

d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

a. Baker phenomenon

b. Arnold reflex

c. cough reflex

d. Tragus reflex

Version 2

Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.

a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated

Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 10
d. 15

Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above

Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10
d. 15

Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: A bulla is:

a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence

Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above

Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills

Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?  

a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. W

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